Tuesday, June 9, 2020

"Must Christ Be Lord To Be Savior?" | 1959 Eternity Magazine

When a man is born again, is it necessary for him to submit to Christ as Lord as well as trust in Christ as Savior? Here is one of the most important questions facing the Church today, discussed ably and carefully by John R. Stott and Everett F. Harrison.

* * *

Everett F. Harrison
states that if we make submission to the Lordship of Christ essential to salvation we make our salvation to be by works, we negate the believer's security and we run counter to clear scriptural teaching.

NO

WHEN THE Revised Version was made, an important gospel text experienced drastic change. In the King James Version, the condition of salvation is to confess with the mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in the heart that God raised Him from the dead (Rom. 10:9). This was altered in the revision to read, "If thou shalt confess with thy mouth Jesus as Lord . . . thou shalt be saved." The change was necessary in order to render properly the original.[1] 
     
This passage of Scripture, more than any other, has become the basis of the contention that one cannot simply receive Christ as Savior. Rather, he must also at the same time receive Him as Lord and turn over the control of his life to Him. If this is not done, the sinner cannot be saved.
     
There is good reason for the growing popularity of this view. Far too many people have responded to the gospel invitation without experiencing a change of life. They have simply believed, we are told, but have not made the Savior their Master. So in time they have drifted away.
     
But we might well raise the question whether the faith of such people is saving faith at all. In several places in John's Gospel people are said to believe, yet almost immediately they have to be regarded as unbelievers (2:23-25; 8:31; and probably 12:42, 43).[2] On the other hand, some believed and entered into life. Wherein lay the difference? Clearly the former group had something capable of being called faith. There was a drawing to Jesus either on account of His miracles or His teaching. But there was no repose of faith on His person. At no point does the text suggest that the second group was differentiated by having made Jesus the Lord of their lives. Rather, they had saving faith. They had the root of the matter in them.
     
The real strength of the viewpoint we are examining lies in the teaching of Jesus on discipleship. A man must hate his family and his own life also if he would be Jesus' follower (Luke 14:26). He must bear the cross (Luke 14:27). He must renounce all that he has (Luke 14:33). It would appear, then, that to the scores of passages which assign only faith as the condition of salvation we must add the several which require one to pay a certain price.
     
Before concluding that the Scripture is at variance with itself, we must note several things about the demands of discipleship.
     
First, they were in part a warning to would-be-followers. Jesus was not impressed with the fact that thousands milled around Him and sought to attach themselves to Him. Only followers who meant business counted with Him.
     
Second, The Twelve did not have these conditions of discipleship presented to them. In fact, on occasion some of them demonstrated that they had not responded to these conditions. How can they be said to have denied self when they strove with one another over who was to be accounted greatest in the kingdom? Peter emphatically rejected the whole cross-idea for the Master, and by implication also for the disciple (Matt. 16:22-26).
     
Third, we should observe that discipleship brings reward. The man who follows Christ at the cost of family, houses, and lands will be recompensed many times over in this life as well as in the life to come (Mart 10:29, 30). Salvation is a gift. It does not depend upon our works. It does not come to us as a reward for faithfulness.
     
Certainly, discipleship is a most important aspect of our relation to Christ, but it belongs to the sphere of Christian life rather than the entrance upon that life. The word disciple answers to Teacher, not Savior. One does not become a disciple in order to become a Christian, but because he has become a Christian by faith in the Savior, it is fitting that he embark upon a life of discipleship.
     
The whole subject is complicated by the fact that disciple is used in two senses in the New Testament. In the book of Acts and in the great commission of Matthew 28:19 the word is equivalent to convert or Christian; in Luke 14 it is used of one who demonstrates the reality of his allegiance to Christ by his readiness to make sacrifices for Him.[3]
     
Strong reasons exist for rejecting the notion that one must make Jesus his Lord as well as his Savior to be truly redeemed.
     
1) this position is unsupported by the examples of gospel preaching in the book of Acts. The invitation at Pentecost was to repent and be baptized (2:38). Peter assured Cornelius and his company that everyone who believes in Christ receives forgiveness of sins (10:43). Paul's invitation is similarly put (13:38, 39). A faithful reading of the entire book of Acts fails to reveal a single passage where people are pressed to acknowledge Jesus Christ as their personal Lord in order to be saved. Does this book have nothing to offer us by way of guidance today? Can we safely ignore it in our presentation of the gospel?
     
2) the view we are considering is contrary to the experience of outstanding Christians in the apostolic age. We have already noted Peter's antagonism to Christ recorded in Matthew 16. The servant was trying to teach the Master. Again, in Acts 10:14, this same Peter contradicted, daring to say, "not so, Lord." Whatever Peter's profession may have been, he certainly was not making Christ Lord on these occasions.
     
Furthermore, who would claim that all God's servants down through the centuries have done so? F. B. Meyer describes his experience of complete dedication to Christ. He gave to the Lord, as it were, the iron ring of his will with all the keys of his life on it, all except one. But the Lord insisted on having that too, and only when complete surrender was made did the blessing come upon His servant's life and ministry. This event marked his coming to terms with Christ's lordship, but who would claim that Meyer was not a Christian prior to that time?
     
3) the ground of assurance of salvation is endangered if surrender to Christ's lordship is a part of that ground. Instead of looking to the sufficiency of Christ and His work of redemption, one is compelled to look within to see if he has yielded himself to the Son of God. If he is conscious of times in his life when he has denied the lordship of the Master (and who has not?) then he must logically question his standing before God. What a wretched condition of uncertainty would then rule instead of the settled peace which is ours when we know that we are Christ's because He died to make us His.
     
4) the view we are considering rules out the necessity for large portions of the practical teaching of the epistles. If the readers are truly Christians (and they are constantly treated as such, being called brethren and saints) then it must be assumed, on the view in question, that they have yielded themselves to Christ as Lord of their lives. But how can this be, in the light of Romans 6 and 12:1, to mention only a few passages of exhortation to the yielded life?
     
5) to adopt this view involves the introduction of a subtle form of legalism. We reject the teaching that we can be saved by works. The Word of God is emphatic on this (Eph. 2:9; Titus 3:5). Why then bring works in by the side door by asserting that unless we do whatever is necessary to the acknowledging of the lordship of Christ in our lives, we are not saved?
     
It is time to retrace our steps and examine again the teaching of Romans 10:9. The text here asserts that in order to be saved one must confess Jesus as Lord [literally "Lord Jesus"] and believe in his heart that God raised Him from the dead.[4] The lordship of Christ is a matter of confession with the mouth, based on a heart belief as to what God did in the resurrection. It is simply an admission of fact. In the resurrection the lordship was declared and made obvious (Acts 2:36). Clearly no one can be saved if Christ did not rise from the dead (1 Cor. 15:14, 17). When the convert proclaimed with his lips, "Jesus is Lord" [in the sense of deity, i.e. "Jesus is God"], he was subscribing to the gospel announcement that a living Lord attests an efficacious death (Rom. 4:25). This is the objective aspect of Jesus' lordship. We find it again in such passages as 1 Corinthians 12:3 and Philippians 2:11. But in the view we are considering the lordship of Jesus in a subjective sense has been insisted on. The difference between the two should be made very clear.[5] 
     
Most of the boys in America are familiar with the name of Roy Rogers. They have heard him on radio or seen him on television. His reputation as a glamorous cowboy is secure. But if some boy were to meet him in person and be given a pat on the head and some memento of the occasion, Roy Rogers would be from that time on his personal hero. The lad would have a subjective relation, not simply a recognition of his objective standing as a popular man.
     
The order is the same in the spiritual realm. Christ is Lord by virtue of resurrection whether anyone acknowledges it personally or not. It is this factual lordship which must be confessed if one would be saved. 
     
Then as we come to know Him for ourselves, we make him Lord in a personal sense.
     
Let's be consistent. Christ is Teacher as well as Lord. Must we therefore insist that the sinner accept Him as Teacher in order to be saved? The same is true of His position as Judge. And so one could go on. 
     
When faith is genuine, it will lead to a desire to know the Lord's will for the life. The acceptance of His control [should not or] will not be refused. But this is not the issue in salvation, and it is both unfair and confusing to the sinner to introduce the issue of what he is to do for Christ before God's grace can be made operative in his life and lead him from darkness to light.
     
There is a cross to be borne if we would be Christ's disciples, but let us not lay it on the sinner while his is contemplating the cross of Calvary where Christ die for his sins. Moule has sensed the difference between the two crosses. "The cross we carry is our cross of trial, the cross where self is crucified. The cross which carries us is the Lord's cross of complete salvation."
     
We are not pleading for an easy, soft salvation or a superficial preaching. We are far from advocating any neglect of the dedicated life. We are pleading only that salvation be preserved for what it is—God's free gift.

          Nothing in my hands I bring,
          Simply to thy cross I cling.

As we come to Christ, our hands must be empty to receive His gifts. He does not expect them to be filled with counter gifts as though to anticipate that, after all, we must do something to be saved.
     
When we thus come to Him, simply as receiving, the blessed Spirit comes into the heart to create those impulses of live and devotion which will make us desire above everything else to acknowledge Christ as our personal Lord and in all things to be conformed to Him. This may take place when we are saved, as it did with Saul of Tarsus, but if it lingers and comes slowly, we can still say with glad and humble hearts that we are His and He is ours.



John R. Stott
says that a faith that does not include submission to the Lordship of Christ is an incomplete faith. When any man comes to Christ for rest, he must also take Christ's yoke, for this is what Scripture teaches.

YES

"WHAT MUST I do to be saved?" is a question of vital importance to the witnessing Christian as well as to the sinner. As the sinner needs to know what conditions must be fulfilled, the witnessing Christian needs to know what conditions must be demanded. But what answer shall we give?[6] 
     
Evangelical Christians are not agreed. Some evangelists are content to say "only believe," and consider that surrender to the Lordship of Christ is a later stage belonging not to conversion but to discipleship. Others take the view that it is impossible to divorce the Saviorhood from the Lordship of Christ, that He who gives all asks all, and that evangelistic preaching is total demand as well as total offer.
     
Those who object to this latter view argue that it is inconsistent with the doctrine of grace and that it allows "merit" to raise its arrogant head. It "brings works in by the side door," to use Dr. Everett F. Harrison's phrase.
     
In venturing to dissent from the conclusions reached by Dr. Harrison, I wholeheartedly agree with him that salvation is by grace alone through faith alone.[7]  If I thought that to insist on surrender to Christ as Lord was to encourage a sinner to rely on good works for salvation, I would abandon such an insistence immediately.
     
But does it? What saith the Scripture? Salvation is sola fide, but some modern evangelical preaching and teaching evacuate faith of some of its essential and distinctive New Testament elements. It is a misunderstanding of the nature of saving faith which lies at the root of this desire to separate Christ as Savior from Christ as Lord, and I think Dr. Harrison will agree with this.[8] 
     
1) Saving faith presupposes repentance. Saving faith is inconceivable without repentance. Every man must to some extent become a penitent before he becomes a believer, and be concerned about his sins before he can be introduced to the Savior.[9] Only when he has renounced sin can he receive Christ. Only when the Law has done its work of exposure and condemnation, can the gospel bring relief and justification. The Holy Spirit convicts of sin [the particular sin of unbelief in Christ] before He testifies to Christ (John 16:8; 15:26).
     
Thus "repentance and faith" form an indissoluble pair. True, sometimes repentance occurs alone (Luke 13:3, 5; 15:7, 10; 24:17) and sometimes faith, (John 3:15, 16; 5:24; 6:47 etc.). Similarly, Peter told the crowds to "repent", while a little later those who did so are termed "believers" (Acts 2:38; 3:19; 4:32). Again, Paul urged the Athenian philosophers to repent and the Philippian jailer to believe (Acts 17:30; 16:31). But commonly repentance and faith are together.
     
The first recorded words of our Lord's public ministry, after announcing the fulfillment of the time and the imminent nearness of the Kingdom, were "repent and believe the good news". Paul describes his ministry in Ephesus by saying that he had faithfully testified "both to Jews and to Greeks repentance to God and faith in our Lord Jesus Christ", and the author of the Epistle to the Hebrews states that "repentance from dead works and faith towards God" belong to "the elementary doctrines of Christ" (Mark 1:15; Acts 20:21; Heb. 6:1).
     
Repentance and faith are in fact the constituent elements of conversion, when viewed from the standpoint of man's experience. For what is conversion but "turning", and what is "to be converted" but "to turn"? The Greek verb is often used in the New Testament in secular, non-theological contexts to describe someone's action in turning round from one direction to another or returning from one place to another. When used in more technical, theological passages the verb has the same meaning. "You turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God." "You were like sheep going astray, but have now returned to the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls" (1 Thess. 1:9; 1 Pet. 2:25).  
     
Conversion therefore involves a twofold turn, a turn from idols and from sin [the particular sin of unbelief in Christ (John 16:8-9); but it appears that Stott means all sin] on the one hand, and a turn to the living God and to the Savior or Shepherd of souls on the other. The "turn away" the New Testament calls repentance; the "turn toward" the New Testament calls faith. So repentance plus faith equals conversion, and no man dare say he is converted who has not repented as well as believed.
     
All evangelicals will agree with this. We must therefore go further and insist that repentance looks forward to the new life that is embraced as well as to the old life which is renounced. True, metanoia means literally "a change of mind," but it describes such a change of mind as involves a change of attitude, direction and behavior.[10] Can a man say he has repented if he does not "bring forth fruits meet for repentance" (Luke 3:8)?[11] No, the prodigal left the far country with its swine and its harlots and walked home.[12] The illustrations Jesus gave of "one sinner that repents" were of a stray sheep rescued from its wanderings, and a mislaid coin picked up from some dark and dirty corner. To claim to have repented and to be saved while remaining in the far country, in the wilderness or on the muddy floor is to be guilty of self-contradiction.[13] 
     
To say that repentance is as much a condition of salvation as faith is not to ascribe "merit" to repentance any more than to faith. Some evangelicals talk as if faith saved us. The popular expression "saving faith" seems to encourage such an idea. Yet we know that only God saves, and that by His sheer and utter grace. Faith does not save. Nor does repentance. Nor is there merit in either. Both are gifts of God. God "grants" repentance just as much as He give faith (Acts 11:18; Eph. 2:8). And if men only "believe through grace," it is only the goodness of God which leads them to repentance (Acts 18:27; Rom. 2:4).
     
2) Saving faith includes obedience. In saying that saving faith includes obedience, I mean that in true faith there is an element of submission. Faith is directed towards a Person. It is in fact a complete commitment to this Person involving not only an acceptance of what is offered but a humble surrender to what is or may be demanded. The bent knee is as much a part of saving faith as the open hand.[14] It is impossible to come to Christ with words like "Nothing in my hand I bring" and at the same time deliberately to withhold one's personal allegiance.[15] Our Lord Jesus Christ fills many roles but is one Person, and faith is commitment to Him as a whole Person, not in a particular role. Faith may not choose to be committed to Him in the role of Savior and not in the role of Lord. 
     
This is not "a subtle form of legalism." If it seems dangerous to talk about obedience as an element of faith, lest salvation appears to be partly by works, it is striking that it is in the great manifesto of grace and faith, the Epistle to the Romans, that this element of faith is mentioned by the Apostle. Twice he tells us, in the first and last chapters, that the purpose of his apostleship and of the preaching of the gospel was "unto (R.S.V. "to bring about") obedience of faith" (1:5; 16:26).[16] 
     
It may be tempting to say that this phrase ["obedience of faith"] refers to the Christian obedience which issues from saving faith and is not a description of saving faith itself. Some evangelicals will point to Hebrews 11:8 as an example of this, where it is written "By faith Abraham obeyed." But there are objections to such a view. To begin with, the context in both passages in Romans is concerned with the proclamation of the gospel to the heathen nations. The phrase "obedience of faith" indicates the response for which the Christian missionary asks. Included among those nations, adds Paul, are "yourselves, who are called to belong to Jesus Christ" ([Rom.] 1:6 R.S.V.). The call of God in the gospel is not just to receive Jesus Christ, but to belong to Him, not just to believe in Him, but to obey Him.[17] 
     
Secondly, the Greek phrase is very compact. Neither noun ("obedience" and "faith") has an article, which we should expect if a distinction was being drawn between them and one were to be conceived as the result of the other. Instead, "obedience of faith" appears to be the one response desired by the evangelist, a personal abandonment of obedience-and-faith or, if you prefer, "obedient faith."
     
Thirdly, mention of obedience is not restricted in the Epistle to the Romans to these two passages. In chapter 6 the Apostle describes the conversion of his readers in these remarkable words (v. 17 literally, "Thanks be to God that you who were slaves of sin obeyed from the heart the form of teaching to which you were committed."[18] The verb "obeyed" is in the aorist tense and refers to their conversion.[19] That conversion is described as an act of obedience not now to Christ or God (although they are called "slaves of God" in verse 22) but to the gospel message they had heard. They had exchanged one slavery for another. Their conversion was not just a liberation from the slavery of sin, but an acceptance of the slavery of righteousness (v. 18). Their Redeemer had become their Lord.[20] 
     
What the apostle thus expounds in the Epistle to the Romans we find illustrated in the evangelistic preaching of our Lord Himself and of His apostles. It is not accurate to suggest that the message of Jesus was simply an offer with no demands.[21] 
     
Perhaps Matthew 11:28-30 gives us the clearest gospel invitation issued by Him. Too many evangelical preachers have taken this text as if it were confined to verse 28, "Come unto me, all ye that labor and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest." But to preach the gospel from this text only and to ignore verse 29 is to handle the word of God deceitfully.[22] Jesus continues: "Take my yoke upon you and learn from me. . . ." Here is the true balance of the gospel. Jesus offers us both rest and a yoke.[23] 
     
When we come to Him, He lifts our burden, and replaces it with His. He eases our yoke, and then fits His.[24] True, we are "heavy laden", while His burden is "light", and we "labor" under our yoke, while His is "easy", but nevertheless we cannot expect to lose our yoke and our burden if we are not prepared to receive His in their place.[25] And what is His "yoke"? The yoke was the transverse wooden bar which held two oxen together. It is used as a symbol of servitude in Scripture. To take His yoke is to become His slave, and to "learn" of Him.[26] The verb is an aorist imperative. It indicates the decisive step of becoming a disciple, of entering His school, of acknowledging Him as our Teacher and Lord.[27]
     
No man can take such a step without due thought. That is why our Lord urged His would-be followers to "sit down first and count the cost." He discourage irresponsible enthusiasts from committing themselves to Him before they had weighed the implications. "Follow me" was His repeated command. But there could be no following without a forsaking, a renunciation (in principle if not in literal fact) of competing loyalties, of family relationships, of personal ambitions, of material possessions (Luke 14:25-33). Before a man could follow Jesus, he must "deny himself and take up his cross" (Mark 8:34).[28] That is, he must repudiate himself and his right to organize his own life as utterly as when Peter denied his Lord (the same verb is used), and he must put himself "into the position of a condemned criminal on his way to execution" (Professor Swete's explanation of "Taking up the cross").


"TAKE MY YOKE"

Thus, taking upon us His yoke and His cross are involved in receiving His rest.[29] The former do not of course merit the latter as a reward. God forbid! But the one is impossible without the other. If I would be a Barabbas and escape the cross, I must be a Simon of Cyrene and carry the cross. Viewed as a penalty for sin, He bore it instead of me. Viewed as a symbol of self-denial, I must bear it after Him.
     
The early apostolic preaching continued the same message. I cannot agree with Dr. Harrison that "this position is unsupported by the examples of gospel preaching in the book of Acts". Why did the apostles lay such stress not only on the resurrection but on the exaltation of Jesus? "Let all the house of Israel know assuredly that God hath made that same Jesus whom ye have crucified both Lord and Christ" (2:36).[30] "Him hath God exalted with His right hand to be a Prince (R.S.V. "Leader") and a Savior, for to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins" (5:31). The Savior offers remission; the Prince demands repentance.[31] Besides, Peter adds, God gives the Holy Spirit to those who obey Him (v. 32).[32] God has highly exalted Him that every knee should bow to Him and every tongue confess Him Lord (Phil. 2:9-11).[33]
     
Again, why is baptism so commonly described in the Acts as being simply "into Christ" or "into the name of Christ"? Christian believers are baptized into Christ as the redeemed Israelites were "baptized into Moses" (1 Cor. 10:2), because baptism symbolizes (among other things) not only the new life we have received bu the new allegiance in which we are involved. Why does Paul tell the Philippian jailor that he must believe in "the Lord Jesus Christ" to be saved if he must only believe in Him as Savior (16:31, cf. 11:17)? And why does Peter, when announcing to Cornelius the good news of peace through Jesus Christ, immediately add in a parenthesis, "He is Lord of all" (10:36)?[34]
     
To confess Jesus as Lord, which in Romans 10:9 is so clearly made a condition of salvation, means more than "subscribing to the gospel announcement that a living Lord attests an efficacious death." It is that. It is also an acknowledgement of the deity of Jesus. But it implies as much that Jesus is "my Lord" as that He is "the Lord". It was in comparison with "the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord" that St. Paul counted everything else but loss (Phil. 3:8).[35]

The earliest known Christian Creed is the two words "Kurios Iesous." "Jesus is Lord." No man can say this, affirms the Apostle, except through the illumination of the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 12:3). but once the confession has been made, the convert may be baptized—baptized into the allegiance of the Lord whom he has professed. To say that only a confession of "factual lordship" is necessary to salvation, without any subjective submission to His as Lord, is to encourage and endorse a faith without works, as dead and sterile as that rejected by James in his epistle.[36]

3) Saving faith issues in newness of life. "Shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?" (Rom. 6:1). One may be forgiven if one ventures to rephrase this ancient question in more modern language: "Shall we continue to reject Christ as Lord if we may continue to have Christ as Savior?" Surely the apostle would again retort: "God forbid!"[37]

Saving faith is living faith; it issues in good works. Spurious faith is dead faith. it is alone; it is barren; it has no progeny. Moreover, the works which result from true faith begin to appear immediately. No interim period may be envisaged between the exercise of faith and the performance of works.[38]

Paul teaches the same truth. Faith does not just receive salvation or eternal life; it receives Christ. Faith has no merit in itself; its only value is that it unites the soul to Christ. Thus united to Christ, we are one with Him in His death and resurrection which are signified in our baptism. It is impossible to share the benefits of His death without sharing the power of His resurrection. It is inconceivable that we should die with Him to sin (thus escaping its penalty) without rising with Him to newness of life (Rom. 6:1-11).[39] Similarly, just as a woman may remarry if her husband dies, so we who "have died to the law through the body of Christ" now find ourselves married to Him who has been raised from the dead (Rom. 7:1-4). But it is impossible to escape bondage to the one without contracting marriage to the other!

Indeed, the ultimate purpose of the Father's election and the Son's death is seen to be not our forgiveness but our holiness. "He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love." "Our Savior Jesus Christ . . . gave Himself for us that He might redeem us from all iniquity and purify unto Himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works." He "bare our sins in His own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should [not: must] live unto righteousness," "that we being delivered out of the hand of our enemies might serve Him without fear, in holiness and righteousness before Him all the days of our life" (Eph. 1:4; Tit. 2:14; 1 Pet. 2:24; Luke 1:74-75).[40]

How can we accept the immediate purpose of our Savior's death (forgiveness) and reject the ultimate purpose (holiness)? We cannot pick and choose which benefits of His death we will appropriate.[41] If Christ's person is one, His work is one also. To accept Him as Savior is to cry to Him for a salvation which is as full as it is free; and to cast ourselves upon Him for rescue from all the ugly aspects and consequences of sin, from its tyranny (through His living Lordship) as well as from its penalty (through His atoning work). To divorce His Lordship from His Saviorhood is to cut up our salvation in an unwarrantable fashion.[42]

To say this does not mean that every born-again Christian is perfect or that he never disobeys Christ. He may even experience periods of rebellion and have to renew his surrender in penitence and humility. Nor as Dr. Harrison argues, does it "rule out the necessity for large portions of the practical teaching of the epistles." The great ethical sections of the New Testament are an exhortation to Christians to "be what they are", to live out in practice what they already are in position. "Do you not know . . . ?" asks St. Paul again and again, implying that if only his readers knew what they had become in Christ, they would live in conformity to their Christian standing.

I am suggesting, therefore, that it is as unbiblical as it is unrealistic to divorce the Lordship from the Saviorhood of Jesus Christ. He is "our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ," and saving faith is commitment to Him who is both Son of God and Savior of men.

To me, the Scriptures require from the sinner such a total and unconditional response as not only presupposes repentance and include obedience but [ . . . ] grace of God, inevitably in a newness of life which is lived unto God and unto righteousness.[43]

Used by permission, Eternity Magazine, published by the Alliance of Confessing Evangelicals, Eternity Magazine, September 1959.


FREE GRACE NOTES:

[1] The original Greek says Kurion Iēsoun or "Lord Jesus". The New Testament Greek scholar A. T. Robertson affirms that the correct translation is "Jesus is Lord" — in the sense of deity: "No Jew would do this [confess that Jesus is Lord] who had not really trusted Christ, for Kurio in the LXX is used of God....Faith precedes confession, of course." (See A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament, p. 1123; Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, commentary on Romans 10:9.)

[2] Many Free Grace advocates understand John 8:31 and John 12:42-43 to be referring to genuine believers.

[3] In the book of Acts (cf. Acts 9:1-2, 19:9, 19:23, 19:30, 20:30, 24:14) and in the great commission of Matthew 28:19-20 the word disciple is used in the sense of follower.

[4] The actual chronological order is clarified in Romans 10:10: first believe unto righteousness, then confession is made unto salvation. (See A. T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, commentary on Romans 10:9. Also see Dr. Constable's Expository Notes on Romans 10:9-10.)

[5] Everett Harrison expounds on these thoughts further in his commentary on Romans in The Expositor's Bible Commentary edited by Frank E. Gaebelien. Harrison writes: "Paul's statement in vv. 9, 10 is misunderstood when it is made to support the claim that one cannot be saved unless he makes Jesus the Lord of his life by a personal commitment. Such a commitment is most important; however, in this passage, Paul is speaking of the objective lordship of Christ, which is the very cornerstone for faith, something without which no one could be saved. Intimately connected as it was with the resurrection, which in turn validated the saving death, it proclaimed something that was true no matter whether or not a single soul believed it and built his life on it." (Harrison, The Expositor's Bible Commentary [Grand Rapids: Zondervan Publishing House, 1976], 12 Vol., Vol. 10, p. 112.)

[6] The apostle Paul gives the answer plainly: "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved" (Acts 16:31). Commenting on this verse, Dr. Charles Bing writes: "The acclamation of Jesus as Lord is an acclamation of His sovereign position as God over all and not a demand for individual submission. The objective truth must be distinguished from the subjective requirement." (Charles Bing, Lordship Salvation: A Biblical Evaluation and Response, 2nd GraceLife Edition [Xulon Press: 2010], p. 108.)

[7] Stott redefines faith so as to include works, which he claims are not works. In his view these things are part of true saving faith.

[8] "Dr. Harrison will agree with this" because this is not what he is advocating. In other words, Harrison has no desire to separate Christ as Savior from Christ as Lord.

[9] The word "penitent" means feeling or showing sorrow for having done wrong. But repentance in the Bible means a change of mind, sorrow may or may not accompany it. 

[10] Does repentance involve a change of behavior? Stott says yes, but it would be more accurate to say that repentance leads to a change of behavior. Stott fails to properly distinguish between repentance and the fruit of repentance (cf. Matthew 3:8, Luke 3:3; Acts 26:20). 

[11] Yes, because according to the Bible, repentance is to be distinguished from the fruit of repentance (see Matthew 3:8; Luke 3:8; Acts 26:20). 

[12] That was the fruit of repentance. The prodigal repented when he "came to his senses" (Luke 15:17), i.e. he repented when he had a change of mind. 

[13] It is not a contradiction to properly distinguish between repentance and the fruit of repentance.

[14] But the bent knee is doing a good work, whereas the open hand is receiving or accepting the work of another (cf. Jn. 1:12).

[15] But the Bible says that salvation is a "free gift" (Rom. 6:23, R.S.V.), no strings attached and no obligations to fulfill other than simply receiving the gift (Jn. 1:12, 3:16-17, etc.). 

[16] Charles Bing in his book Lordship Salvation (pp. 21-24), which is written from a Free Grace perspective, directly interacts with Stott's understanding of the phrase "obedience of faith". Bing writes: "Stott is occupied with arguing against the view that "obedience of faith" refers to sanctifying obedience which comes after saving faith. He does not address an alternative interpretation that faith is the obedient response of sinners to the Gospel." Bing concludes by saying "that 'the obedience of faith' spoken of in Romans 1:5 and 16:26 is obedience to the command to believe the gospel." Another Free Grace author similarly points out that "Rom. 1:5 is properly 'the obedience which is faith' and not the obedience resulting from faith." (See Dillow, The Reign of the Servant Kings, p. 274.) After this statement in Dillow's book, there is a footnote in which Dillow quotes William Sanday and Arthur C. Headlam (A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Epistle to the Romans, p. 11) when they say: "Faith is the act of assent by which the gospel is appropriated." Additionally, Dr. Constable in his "Expository Notes on Romans 1:5" gives the following helpful commentary on the phrase "obedience of faith". Dr. Constable writes: "Faith is obedience to God because God commands everyone to believe in Christ (cf. John 6:29; Acts 17:30-31). This verse is not teaching that saving faith always results in ongoing obedience to God, though that is normally its effect. [Note: See Robert N. Wilkin, "Obedience to the Faith: Romans 1:5," Grace in Focus 10:6 (November-December 1995): 2-4.]" William R. Newell also has a helpful comment on this verse in his classic evangelical commentary Romans Verse-By-Verse. Commenting on the phrase "obedience of faith" in Romans 1:5, Newell writes: "To obey God's good news, is simply to believe it." All in all, the Bible makes it clear that sinners must obey the command to believe, or as Leon Morris puts it in his commentary on Romans (p. 50), "the way to obey is to believe." (Also see: Jn. 3:36, 6:28-29; Acts 16:31; Rom. 1:16-17, 5:1, 10:16; 2 Thess. 1:8-10.) 

[17] When sinners believe in Him, they are obeying Him. He commands them to believe.

[18] Romans chapters 6-8 have to do with the Christian life. Romans 6:17 is referring to their initial commitment after salvation (cf. Rom. 1:8, 1:12). For more information and further discussion see the comments by Charles Bing in his book Lordship Salvation, p. 24. 

[19] Just because the verb is in the aorist tense does not necessarily mean that it refers to their conversion.

[20] But in Romans 6:18 the apostle Paul is describing what happened to the Roman converts after their initial salvation: "you became slaves of righteousness" (v. 18). Dr. Constable in his commentary on Romans 6:18 is correct to point out: "'Righteousness' here is the result of following Christian teaching, and it is the equivalent of godly living. It is righteous character and conduct. Paul did not say that every believer takes advantage of his or her freedom from sin's tyranny to become a slave of God. He said his readers had done, and in this he rejoiced. Dedication to God is voluntary, not automatic for the Christian (cf. Romans 6:13; Romans 12:1). If a believer does not truly dedicate himself or herself to God, he or she will continue to practice sin to a greater extent than he will if he does present himself to God (Romans 6:16)."

[21] Jesus had more than one message. Which "message of Jesus" does Stott have in mind? He mentions "the Epistle to the Romans" but even in the Epistle to the Romans the apostle Paul writes about justification in chapters 1-5, sanctification in chapters 6-8, dispensations in chapters 9-11, and various exhortations in chapters 12-16. So in regards to determining "the message of Jesus" in any given context, it's good to keep in mind John Wycliff's Golden Rule of Interpretation: "It shall greatly help thee to understand Scripture, if thou mark not only what is spoken or written, but of whom, and to whom, with what words, at what time, where, to what intent, with what circumstances, considering what goeth before and what followeth after." These are key questions to ask and key distinctions to be made when interpreting the Bible.  "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth" (2 Timothy 2:15). 

[22] The Ryrie Study Bible (written from a Free Grace perspective) has a note on Matthew 11:28-30 that is very good. It says: “The great invitation, extended to all, is threefold: (1) to come and receive salvation; (2) to learn in discipleship; and (3) to serve in yoke with the Lord. The yoke involves instruction under discipline. Yet, in contrast to the teaching of the scribes, Jesus’ yoke is easy. Through the ages these verses have been among the most beloved in the New Testament.” Here Ryrie draws attention to the biblical distinction between salvation (in Matthew 11:28) and discipleship (in Matthew 11:29-30). Stott would do well to also recognize this biblical distinction, but unfortunately he does not.

[23] Commenting on the words of Jesus in Matthew 11:28-30, Charles Bing writes: "To Lordship Salvation teachers, this is exclusively an invitation to discipleship-salvation. Both Stott and MacArthur claim that this is Christ's summary gospel presentation. Both focus on the metaphor of the 'yoke,' which they claim signifies servitude and submission, and the imperative 'learn' (mathētē) which indicates discipleship. . . . But salvation and discipleship can be distinguished: 'Come' is separated from 'take...and learn' in the text in a logical progression (one must come to Christ before one can take something from Him) which shows the sequence of salvation before the submission to discipleship." (Bing, Lordship Salvation, pp. 150-153, ellipsis added.)

[24] Only after salvation does Jesus burden us with the demands of discipleship. 

[25] Why not? Isn't salvation a "free gift" (Rom. 6:23, R.S.V.)? It's not free if demands are attached to it in order to receive it (Rom. 4:4-5, 11:6).

[26] This is discipleship, not salvation. Commenting on Matthew 11:28-30, Dr. Barnhouse affirms: "I believe that this goes much further than salvation. 'Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you, and learn of me; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and ye shall find rest unto your souls. For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light' (Matt. 11:28-30). It's well to note that the word rest is found twice here. Two centuries ago, Charles Wesley wrote the hymn, 'Let us all in thee inherit, Let us find the second rest. Take away our love of sinning, Alpha and Omega be.' This was a declaration of the two kinds of rest. And what Wesley was singing was, 'Let us find the second rest.' Jesus said, 'Come . . . and I will give you rest. Take my yoke . . . and ye shall find rest.' They are quite different. The one is peace with God; the other is the peace of God. One is a rest that is given; the other is a rest that is found. 'Come unto me . . . and I will give you rest' is the rest of security and the 'take my yoke' is the rest of surrender. The first is a sign that the war is over and you can enter into peace, the second lets you enjoy the peace." (Donald Grey Barnhouse, The Love Life: A Study of the Gospel of John [Glendale, CA: Regal Books Division, G/L Publications, 1973], pp. 316-317, emphasis and ellipsis his.)

[27] Yes, these are the demands of discipleship, not salvation. We need to recognize this distinction in order to "rightly divide [accurately handle] the Word of truth" (2 Tim. 2:15).

[28] By applying these commands to unbelievers and requiring unbelievers to fulfill these demands in order to get saved, Stott is teaching a works-based system of salvation.

[29] According to Matthew 11:28-30, receiving God's rest comes first (i.e. when Jesus says in Matthew 11:28, "I will give you rest") and only after the sinner receives God's rest, that is, becomes a Christian, is he encouraged to take Christ's yoke of discipleship. As Dr. Barnhouse noted above (see footnote 26), the word rest is used twice in Matthew 11:28-30. The first rest refers to salvation; the second rest refers to discipleship, i.e. the believer's rest of Hebrews chapter 4.

[30] Stott asks the question: "Why did the apostles lay such stress not only on the resurrection but on the exaltation of Jesus?" The answer is because in order to be born again, sinners need to believe that Jesus is "the Christ, the Son of the living God" (Matt. 16:16-18; cf. John 20:30-31; Acts 9:20-22). The preaching in the book of Acts stressing the resurrection and exaltation of Jesus emphasizes His deity.

[31] Stott says, "the Prince demands repentance." Yes, and what is repentance? Not what Stott says it is, but simply a change of mind or a change of heart. 

[32] Citing Acts 5:32, Stott says that "God gives the Holy Spirit to those who obey Him (v. 32)." Yes, the command to believe is a command to obey (Acts 16:31; 2 Thess. 1:8-10, etc.); obey the command to believe! Trust Christ and be saved!

[33] The context of Philippians chapter 2 is not salvation, but Christian service (Phil. 2:1-7). This occurs after initial salvation (Phil. 2:12-13).

[34] Harrison already answered these questions when he said, "When the convert proclaimed with his lips, 'Jesus is Lord' [in the sense of deity, i.e. 'Jesus is God'], he was subscribing to the gospel announcement that a living Lord attests an efficacious death (Rom. 4:25). This is the objective aspect of Jesus' lordship. We find it again in such passages as 1 Corinthians 12:3 and Philippians 2:11. But in the view we are considering the lordship of Jesus in a subjective sense has been insisted on. The difference between the two should be made very clear." The title Lord is a reference to the fact that Jesus is God. It is His objective title. The response commanded is simply to believe in Him, not make Him Lord — He is Lord! Believe in Him!

[35] Stott is again confusing Christian life truth with salvation truth. In Philippians 3:8, the apostle Paul is referring to his experience as a Christian and talking about the Christian life. Paul is not talking about how to get saved.

[36] James in his epistle is talking about justification before men and being saved from a barren and unproductive Christian life. Furthermore, if a "subjective submission to [Jesus] as Lord" is necessary to salvation (as Stott argues), why does the apostle Paul in Acts 16:31 not tell the Philippian jailor to submit to Jesus as Lord? Instead, Paul says to "believe on the Lord Jesus Christ." As Dr. Harrison noted, "The difference between the two should be made very clear." 

[37] Many Free Grace advocates agree that saving faith issues in newness of life. For example, Robert Lightner in his book Sin, Salvation, and the Savior writes on page 208 that "true faith really will express itself in good works. They may not always be seen by others at all times, but life cannot be hidden forever." Quoting Charles Ryrie from his book So Great Salvation, Lightner goes on to write (p. 208): "'So likely it can truly be said that every believer will bear fruit somewhere (in earth and/or in heaven) sometime (especially and/or irregularly during life), somehow (publicly and/or privately).'" So Free Grace advocates would generally agree with Stott that "Saving faith issues in newness of life." However, Stott is incorrect to imply that Free Grace advocates like Harrison are saying to outright "reject Christ as Lord" but not as Savior. Once again, Stott fails to distinguish between the objective Lordship of Christ and submitting to Him as Lord in the subjective sense. Additionally, I want to make one last comment in regards to when Stott rephrases Romans 6:1 and asks: "Shall we continue to reject Christ as Lord if we may continue to have Christ as Savior?" Why would the apostle Paul ask such a question if it's not even a real possibility? That wouldn't make any sense. So although "to reject Christ as Lord" (in the subjective sense) would be a tragic misuse of grace, it is nonetheless a real possibility! Thus Stott unwittingly admits that it's possible to reject Christ as Lord of one's life in the subjective sense and still have Christ as Savior!

[38] But surely the example of the carnal believers in the Corinthian church (1 Cor. 3:1-3) disproves Stott's statements! I also think of the example of the seed that fell on rocky soil in Luke 8:13. According to Jesus in Luke 8:6, this seed initially "grew up" — in other words, there was life! Maybe there was no good works, but there was life! Jesus explains that "those on the rocky soil are those who, when they hear ["the word" of the gospel, v. 12], they receive the word with joy [a "fruit of the Spirit," Gal. 5:22]; and these have no firm root [they have a "root", but it's not "firm"]; they believe for a while, and in time of temptation fall away" (Lk. 8:13). The context is clearly "believe" unto salvation (see Luke 8:12), so these believers in Luke 8:13 are "saved" (Lk. 8:12). Furthermore, as another example, I also think of the religious leaders in John 12:42 who believed in Jesus but were not openly confessing their faith because of their fear of the Jews. These three examples disprove Stott's statements when he says that saving faith always issues in good works and good works begin to appear immediately. I would say (and many Free Grace advocates would say) that good works will not necessarily appear immediately in the life of a believer, but they "should" appear inevitably: "For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them" (Eph. 2:10, NKJV).

[39] Right, but how this new life manifests itself — or doesn't manifest itself as it should, due to one grieving (Eph. 4:30) and/or quenching the Spirit (1 Thess. 5:19) — is different for each Christian.

[40] All these Scriptures are written to already saved people! Furthermore, when 1 Peter 2:24 says "we...should live unto righteousness," it's in the subjunctive mood in Greek. The subjunctive mood is the mood of possibility, not certainty. In other words, it's not a guarantee that every Christian will "live unto righteousness". Indeed, "we...should" as 1 Peter 2:24 says, but this is much different than saying "we must" or "we will".

[41] Stott says: "We cannot pick and choose which benefits of His death we will appropriate." I would ask Stott: Are they benefits or requirements? Stott is turning the benefits given us at salvation into legalistic requirements that one must commit to in order to be saved! I like the following statements by Dr. J. Vernon McGee on this topic. Commenting on Ephesians 1:7, McGee writes: "We looked at the Greek words for redemption and saw that it involved the paying of a price which was the blood of Christ: we can have forgiveness because He paid the price. We know that God went into the marketplace where we were sold on the slave block of sin and He bought us, all of us. He is going to use us for Himself — He establishes a personal relationship. We saw also that He bought us in order to set us free. Now somebody will ask, 'Doesn't that upset the hymn that says, 'I gave, I gave My life for thee. What hast thou done for Me'?' My friend, it surely does. The very word for redemption in verse seven, apolutrosis, means that God never asks you what you have done for Him. That is the glorious thing about grace: when God saves you by grace, it doesn't put you in debt to Him. He bought you in order to set you free. Someone else will ask, 'But aren't we supposed to serve Him?' Certainly. But it is on another basis, a new relationship — the relationship now is love. The Lord Jesus said, 'If ye love me, keep my commandments' (John 14:15). He didn't say, 'Because I'm dying for you, you are to keep My commandments.' He said, 'If you love Me.' Today, if you love Him, He wants your service. If you don't love Him, then forget about this business of service. One hears so much today about commitment to Christ. Friend, you and I have very little to commit to Him. We are to respond in love to Him, and that is a different basis altogether. We love Him because He first loved us. . . . He paid a price for you. He gave Himself and shed His blood so that you could have forgiveness of sins. This is all yours if you are willing to come to Him and accept Him as your Savior."

[42] Stott says: "To divorce His Lordship from His Saviorhood is to cut up our salvation in an unwarrantable fashion." Free Grace advocates like Dr. Harrison do not divorce Christ's Lordship from His Saviorhood. Even Wayne Grudem, a Calvinist and Reformed theologian, admits on page 23 of his book "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel [of Lordship Salvation]: "The Free Grace supporters...still affirm strongly that Jesus is in fact Lord over the entire universe and over all of our lives, even though we imperfectly submit to his lordship. And those on the non-Free Grace side, all agree that our submission to Christ's lordship is imperfect in this life. So both sides agree that Jesus is Lord of our lives in some sense and is not fully Lord of our lives in another sense." I might add that Free Grace advocates also understand Christ's title of Lord in the sense of deity and as a designation that He is God.

[43] It appears there is some missing text in the last paragraph of the article (which I have indicated with ellipsis in brackets).

Friday, May 29, 2020

The Geneva Bible's Definition of "Repent" in Matthew 3:2

The Geneva Bible is particularly well-liked by Calvinists because it contains marginal notes that promote the theology of John Calvin. The Geneva Bible may as well be called "The John Calvin Study Bible" because it was Calvin who first penned the marginal notes found within its pages. The Preface to the Geneva Bible also features a 16-page letter written by Calvin in which he endorses the Geneva Bible. In light of all this, it's interesting what the Geneva Bible's marginal note for the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2 says, because the marginal note actually supports the Free Grace definition of repentance!

Those who are familiar with the history of the Geneva Bible know that the marginal notes have been updated since it was first published, which I will get to in just a minute. So in order to understand what I'm talking about in this post you need to understand that there are the original marginal notes and the revised marginal notes. Of course the original marginal note for Matthew 3:2 written by John Calvin in the 1560 edition of the Geneva Bible conveys his view of repentance: sorrow for sin and changing one's life for the better.[1] Calvin's marginal note for the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2 reads: "Or, be sorry for your past faults, and amend." But is this the true meaning of the Greek word in the New Testament?

In 1576 Laurence Tomson (1539-1608), a staunch Calvinist, revised the text and marginal notes of the New Testament in the Geneva Bible.[2] Tomson's notes on the New Testament are based largely on his translation of Theodore Beza's text and Annotations. (Beza was a disciple of John Calvin who lived most of his life in Geneva.) What's interesting is that in contrast to John Calvin, Tomson (following Beza) actually goes back to the original Greek of the New Testament to define the word "Repent"! In updated editions of the Geneva Bible with Tomson New Testament, the marginal note for the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2 now says: "The word in the Greek tongue signifieth a changing of our minds and hearts from evil to better." This is very significant because Reformed theologians such as Wayne Grudem, for example, argue that the Free Grace "change of mind" definition of repentance is not supported by any standard lexicon or other reference work on the meanings of Greek words in the New Testament.[3] But here in the Geneva Bible we have a Calvinist saying exactly the opposite!

Unfortunately, the updated Geneva Bible sometimes still translates the word "Repent" as "Amend your lives" (e.g. Mt. 4:17; Lk. 13:3, 5, Acts 3:19, etc. in the Geneva Bible), but that's what I would expect from a Bible written largely under the influence of John Calvin. Do people have to "amend their lives" to get saved? That's works salvation!

Thank you Laurence Tomson for going back to the original Greek, at least in Matthew 3:2, to define the word "Repent"!


ENDNOTES:

[1] Although the marginal notes in the 1560 edition of the Geneva Bible may not have been personally written by Calvin himself, the Genevan revisers were at least "in consultation with" him. For more information see the article "The Geneva Bible (1557-1560)," excerpted from the article "English Versions" by Sir Frederic G. Kenyon in the Dictionary of the Bible edited by James Hastings, and published by Charles Scribner's Sons of New York in 1909 (www.bible-researcher.com/geneva6.html). Irene Backus furthermore notes that the Genevan revisers were "considerably influenced by" Calvin's 1558 revision of the French Geneva Bible. For more information see the doctoral thesis by Irena Dorota Backus, "Influence of Theodore Beza on the English New Testament," p. 20.

[2] For more information see the book: Hope's Anchor: A History of the Geneva Bible, Vol. 6 (London: The Olive Tree, 1974), by Lewis Lupton.

[3] Wayne Grudem, "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel (Crossway, 2016), pp. 63-64.

Thursday, May 28, 2020

What Free Grace Books Don't Teach the "Crossless" or "Groundless" Gospels?


Some time ago I received an email asking if I could recommend any books in relation to Free Grace Theology that don't teach the crossless or groundless gospels? The actual question was: "What books in relation to Free Grace Theology don't teach the crossless or groundless gospels?" I was able to give my recommendations, and then I thought that others might have the same question. So here are some of my thoughts on what Free Grace books don't teach the "crossless" or "groundless" gospels.
    
The Bible is of course the number one source of Free Grace Theology! In Romans 3:24 the apostle Paul  makes it clear that we are "justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus". You might be wondering, "What version of the Bible should I use?" Personally, I like the New American Standard Bible (NASB). I believe this was also the translation preferred by Dr. Charles Ryrie. Besides the Bible, some other good Free Grace books that I can recommend are ones that are authored by men such as: D. L. Moody, C. I. Scofield, William R. Newell, H. A. Ironside, Lewis Sperry Chafer, J. Vernon McGee, Charles Ryrie, J. Dwight Pentecost, Warren Wiersbe, David Jeremiah, Chuck Swindoll, Roy B. Zuck, John Walvoord, Norman Geisler, Charlie Bing, — there's more but that's probably enough to get you started.
    
Let me just add one more thought; it should be obvious but let me just mention it for those who might say something like: "So-and-so doesn't agree with you on such and such." I'm not saying that I agree with these men on every single point of doctrine. They don't even agree with each other on every point of doctrine, by the way! For example, I remember listening to Dr. J. Vernon McGee on the radio one time and he was explaining his understanding of Hebrews 6:4-9. McGee mentioned the notes in The Scofield Reference Bible and said that he didn't agree with Scofield's interpretation. Here's what McGee said: "Well, personally I cannot accept this. This was the viewpoint of Matthew Henry. It was the viewpoint of Grant, and Darby, and Dr. C. I. Scofield in his reference Bible, and I certainly recommend that Bible. But I don't think the notes are inspired, and I do not accept that interpretation." Obviously these men's writings aren't inspired. But they have written some very helpful books and I generally recommend them and generally agree with them. The brand of Free Grace promoted by these men is what's called "traditional Free Grace Theology".

Monday, May 25, 2020

Louis Berkhof on Biblical Repentance

Louis Berkhof (1873-1957) was a Reformed theologian, yet Free Grace authors consistently cite him in support of their “a change of mind” definition of repentance.1 Why is this? I have already pointed out several reasons for this in my article: “Free Grace Theology: 6 Ways Grudem Misrepresents Biblical Repentance” (see # 5: “Grudem misrepresents Reformed theologian Louis Berkhof”). I won't repeat those reasons in this article, but here I want to mention yet another statement by Berkhof showing that he does indeed understand repentance in the Bible in the sense of “a change of mind”. Notice what Berkhof says in his Systematic Theology under the heading “THE SCRIPTURAL VIEW OF REPENTANCE”: 
“According to Scripture repentance is wholly an inward act, and should not be confounded with the change of life that proceeds from it. Confession of sin and reparation of wrongs are fruits of repentance.” 2
These statements by Louis Berkhof concerning repentance are indeed (as Charles Bing says in his book Lordship Salvation: A Biblical Evaluation and Response) “supporting comments” to the biblical understanding of repentance as “a change of mind”!


ENDNOTES:

1 See G. Michael Cocoris, Evangelism: A Biblical Approach (Chicago: Moody Press, 1984), p. 68; Cocoris, Repentance: The Most Misunderstood Word in the Bible (Santa Monica, 2003), p. 10; Charles Bing, Lordship Salvation: A Biblical Evaluation and Response (Xulon Press: 2010), pp. 69, 82.

2 Louis Berkhof, Systematic Theology (Grand Rapids: Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1996), p. 487. First published in 2 volumes by the William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company. Introductory Volume to Systematic Theology, 1932. Systematic Theology, 1938. Combined edition with new preface, 1996 by the William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company. Note: As I alluded to above, both G. Michael Cocoris and Charles Bing quote this exact statement by Berkhof.

Sunday, May 24, 2020

The Scofield Reference Bible on "Repentance"


Repentance, in O.T., Summary, Zechariah 8:14, note:
Repentance (O.T.), Summary: In the O.T., repentance is the English word used to translate the Heb. nacham, to be "eased" or "comforted." It is used of both God and man. Notwithstanding the literal meaning of nacham, it is evident, from a study of all the passages, that the sacred writers use it in the sense of metanoia in the N.T.—a change of mind. See Mt. 3. 2; Acts 17. 30, note. As in the N.T., such change of mind is often accompanied by contrition and self-judgment. When applied to God the word is used phenomenally according to O.T. custom. God seems to change His mind. The phenomena are such as, in the case of a man, would indicate a change of mind.1

Repentance, in N.T., Summary, Acts 17:30, note:
Repentance is the trans. of a Gr. word (metanoia—metanoeo) meaning, "to have another mind," "to change the mind," and is used in the N.T. to indicate a change of mind in respect of sin, of God, and of self. This change of mind may, especially in the case of Christians who have fallen into sin, be preceded by sorrow (2 Cor. 7. 8-11), but sorrow for sin, though it may "work" repentance, is not repentance. The son in Mt. 21. 28, 29 illustrates true repentance. Saving faith (Heb. 11. 39, note) includes and implies that change of mind which is called repentance.2


ENDNOTES:

1 C. I. Scofield, The Scofield Reference Bible (New York: Oxford University Press, 1917), p. 972.

2 Ibid., p. 1174.

Friday, May 22, 2020

Charles Ryrie on Repentance and Faith, Pt. 1

Dr. Charles Ryrie
I grew up in a Free Grace church, and this is how I first came to know about Charles Ryrie and his writings. My dad started taking my family and I to this particular church in 1989. I was only about 10 years old. I remember one of the things that made an impression on me was that it seemed like everyone in the church had a Ryrie Study Bible. At the time I didn't understand why, I just thought it was some kind of requirement or something. So of course I was excited when one day my dad gave me my very own Ryrie Study Bible! Like everyone else's, mine had a brown cover and it was in the New American Standard translation. I remember one time in church I accidentally ripped a page in my Ryrie Study Bible and my dad looked at me as if I had committed the unpardonable sin!  I also remember that during the Sunday morning service the pastor often read excerpts from Bob Wilkin's newsletters. (This was before the Grace Evangelical Society started promoting the "crossless gospel".) Now I'd like to explain why this background, especially concerning Charles Ryrie, is important and what does it have to do with the topic of this post?

There are several misleading statements (Q&As) on the back cover of Wayne Grudem's "Free Grace" book that I think need to be discussed and corrected. The book I'm referring to is titled "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel (Crossway Publishers, 2016). The first misleading Q&A on the back cover says: 
"Must the gospel message include a call for people to repent of their sins? 'No,' say Free Grace advocates."

That answer is misleading because Charles Ryrie, a well-known "Free Grace advocate" (he was, for example, the 2008 recipient of the Free Grace Alliance's annual Trophy of Grace Award), has said:
"But if repentance means changing your mind about the particular sin of rejecting Christ, then that kind of repentance saves, and of course it is the same as faith in Christ. This is what Peter asked the crowd to do on the day of Pentecost [in Acts chapter 2]. They were to change their minds about Jesus of Nazareth. Formerly they had considered Him to be only a blasphemous human being claiming to be God; now they changed their minds and saw Him as the God-man Saviour whom they would trust for salvation. That kind of repentance saves, and everyone who is saved has repented in that sense." (Ryrie, A Survey of Bible Doctrine [Chicago: Moody Publishers, 1972], p. 139.)

Elsewhere Ryrie similarly says:
"This is what Peter meant by repentance when he was asked by the people what they should do in the light of his message (Acts 2:38). The word repent means, of course, to change one's mind about something. But what that something is is all-important to the meaning of repentance in any given context. . . . The content of repentance which brings eternal life, and that which Peter preached on the day of Pentecost, is a change of mind about Jesus Christ. Whereas the people who heard him on that day formerly thought of Jesus as a mere man, they were asked to accept Him as Lord (Deity) and Christ (promised Messiah). To do this would bring salvation." (Ryrie, Balancing the Christian Life [Chicago: Moody Press, 1969], pp. 175-176.)

Some Free Grace advocates (like Zane Hodges and Bob Wilkin for example) probably would give a "No" answer to the question posed on the back cover of Grudem's book. But Grudem doesn't seem to understand or acknowledge this. Instead, he makes it sound as if all Free Grace advocates would answer "No"—which of course is not true, as I have pointed out above.

But there's more! There's a second Q&A on the back cover of Grudem's book that is similarly misleading. It says:
"Is evidence of a changed life an important indication of whether a person is truly born again? 'No, again,' these advocates say."

Again, let's see what Charles Ryrie says in regards to the question. Does Ryrie say that evidence of a changed life is not an important indication of whether a person is truly born again? By no means! In fact, he says quite the opposite. Notice the following statements by Ryrie:
"Every Christian will bear spiritual fruit. Somewhere, sometime, somehow. Otherwise that person is not a believer. Every born-again individual will be fruitful. Not to be fruitful is to be faithless, without faith, and therefore without salvation." (Ryrie, So Great Salvation [Wheaton: Victor Books, 1989], p. 45.)
"Unproductive faith is a spurious faith; therefore, what we are in Christ will be seen in what we are before men." (Ryrie, So Great Salvation [Wheaton: Victor Books, 1989], see pp. 132-134.)

I think all this is important to point out because Grudem is really not being honest with what Free Grace advocates have said, or maybe he just hasn't done his research. Either way, Grudem's book is misrepresenting Free Grace Theology and I would ask him to please contact his publisher and ask them to correct it.

Wednesday, May 20, 2020

How Crossway Publishers Discriminates Against Free Grace Authors

Crossway Publishers says on it's website that it "exists solely for the purpose of proclaiming the gospel through publishing" and that it publishes "gospel-centered books." But what gospel are they promoting: the gospel of God's free grace (Rom 3:24), or perhaps something else?

Dr. Charlie Bing's statement about Crossway Publishers is revealing, and I'm going to reproduce it below. To give his statement some context, Dr. Bing is a Free Grace theologian and published author writing a review of Wayne Grudem's book "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel (Crossway Publishers, 2016). At the end of his review, Dr. Bing shares the following information under the heading "Finally, Some Unfortunate Misstatements and Misrepresentations":
"Dr. Grudem also unfairly tries to minimize the academic credibility of Free Grace teachers. He says, rightly so, that many Free Grace authors self-publish or publish with little known publishers (p. 138). He mentions two exceptions: Zane Hodges who published with Zondervan (but he did not mention Bob Wilkin who also published with Zondervan), and myself who published with Kregel. But then he says that my book with Kregel, Simply by Grace, is out of print! [order here] I was so surprised to read this that I immediately contacted the head of Kregel to ask him if this was true. Absolutely not, he said. The fact is, there have been three printings and more than seven foreign translations of this book. I don't know where Dr. Grudem got his information or why he would even want to say this (After correspondence with Dr. Grudem, he said he would tell Crossway to correct the error). There are some other Free Grace authors who have published with major publishers too. But the argument that Free Grace authors don't have academic credibility because they do not have major publishers is akin to the argument that creationists are not credible scientists because they are not professors in our universities. The sobering truth is that evolutionists are in control of who teaches in their universities, and the Reformed Calvinists are largely in control of the publishing industry (and the academic organizations). For example, I know that Crossway, who published Dr. Grudem's book, was asked if they would publish a response by some well-qualified Free Grace scholars. They refused to do so. A couple of years ago, we heard that Dr. Grudem was going to present essentially this same critique of Free Grace theology at the Evangelical Society's Annual Meeting. I submitted a proposal that simply addressed misunderstandings about Free Grace theology (not an attack or direct response to Dr. Grudem), yet I was denied. I have reflected the Free Grace position in books and credible journal articles and presented at least four times in previous years at ETS with no problem. But it seems that all Free Grace presentation proposals were denied that year, though these people have presented before. Dr. Grudem is a recent past president of ETS, as is Thomas Schreiner. What are we to think? I'll leave you to your own conclusions."1

I don't want to imply that only Crossway Publishers discriminates against Free Grace authors. There are, no doubt, other publishers and organizations that try to censor Free Grace views, as Dr. Bing implies when he says that "the Reformed Calvinists are largely in control of the publishing industry (and the academic organizations)." 

So what can Free Grace people do about it? Personally, I think I'm going to vote with my wallet. As my dad says, "I'll take my business elsewhere." Thank you very much! In fact, I will happily take my business elsewhere: like to some vendor on Amazon selling the same book used. That way I get the book at a better price and I'm not supporting the error of Calvinism promoted by Crossway Publishers.


ENDNOTE:

Monday, May 18, 2020

"Free Grace" Theology: 7 Ways Grudem Misrepresents Biblical Repentance

This article is Part 2 of a previous article I wrote titled: "Free Grace  Theology: 6 Ways Grudem Misrepresents Biblical Repentance". In this follow-up article, I'm going to cite yet another example of how Wayne Grudem misrepresents both Dr. Bing and the Bible in regards to biblical repentance. 
    
In Grudem's book "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel, one of the things he says is: "In order to evaluate Bing’s 'change of mind' definition [of repentance], in the next two sections we need to examine evidence from Greek lexicons and from English translations of the Bible."[1] In my previous article which I mentioned above, I showed how Grudem misrepresented the Greek lexicons. In this article I will show how Grudem misrepresents English translations of the Bible.

In evaluating Bing’s “change of mind” definition of repentance, Grudem makes a bold claim in regards to how the English translations of the Bible translate the Greek word metanoeō. Grudem claims that: “ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS SAY ‘REPENT!’ AND NOT ‘CHANGE YOUR MIND!’”[2] In the next sentence, Grudem similarly declares that “the definition of repentance as a mere ‘change of mind’...differs from all widely known English Bible translations.”[3] Grudem then proceeds to quote several Bible verses from the New Testament which translate the Greek words metanoeō and metanoia as repent and repentance, but strangely he never once mentions how repentance (including the word metanoeō in the Septuagint) is translated in the Old Testament! This is especially odd considering the fact that Grudem is evaluating Charlie Bing’s understanding of repentance as “a change of mind,” and Bing does in fact discuss how the word repent is translated in the Old Testament. For example, under the heading “The Meaning of Metanoeō” (p. 69), Dr. Bing discusses the Hebrew word shub and the Hebrew word nacham. Concerning the Hebrew word nacham, Bing writes the following: 
“In the LXX [the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament] the verb [metanoeō] often translates the Hebrew n`h~m [naham, also spelled nacham], ‘to be sorry, to comfort oneself’ (A Hebrew and English Lexicon of the Old Testament [BDB, by Francis Brown, S. R. Driver, and Charles A. Briggs, 1980], s.v. ‘n`h~m [naham],’ pp. 636-37) which shows an emotional element. It is significant, however, that n`h~m [naham] occurs 108 times in the Old Testament, but is used only three times of the repentance of men (Job 42:6; Jer. 8:6; 31:19); and none of these refer to salvation from eternal judgment. For further discussion, see Robert N. Wilkin, ‘Repentance and Salvation, Part 2: The Doctrine of Repentance in the Old Testament,’ JOTGES 2 (Spring 1989): 26.”[4]

Although Grudem quotes from page 69 of Bing's book, Grudem never once mentions Bing's statements on that very page about the Hebrew word nacham. Why is this? Could it be because the Hebrew word nacham (the word often translated metanoeō in the Septuagint) is frequently used in the Old Testament in reference to God Himself and is translated into English in a number of places as "change His mind"! For instance, the New American Standard Bible (NASB), a "widely known English Bible translation,"[5] translates the Hebrew word nacham (metanoeō in the Greek Septuagint or LXX) as "change His mind" in the following instances: 
"And also the Glory of Israel will not lie or change His mind [Heb. nacham / Gr. metanoēsei in LXX]; for He is not a man that He should change His mind [Heb. nacham / Gr. metanoēsai in LXX]." (1 Samuel 15:29, NASB) 
"For this the earth shall mourn, and the heavens above be dark, because I have spoken, I have purposed, and I will not change My mind [Heb. nacham / Gr. metanoēsō in LXX], nor will I turn from it." (Jeremiah 4:28, NASB) 
"if it does evil in My sight by not obeying My voice, then I will think better [Heb. nacham / Gr. metanoēsō in LXX] of the good with which I had promised to bless it." (Jeremiah 18:10, NASB) 
"The LORD changed His mind [Heb. nacham / Gr. metanoēson in LXX] about this. 'It shall not be,' said the LORD." (Amos 7:3, NASB) 
"The LORD changed His mind [Heb. nacham / Gr. metanoēson in LXX] about this. 'This too shall not be,' said the Lord GOD." (Amos 7:6, NASB) 

What's more, when I looked up these verses in several of the other "widely known English Bible translations" such as the NET, NIV, NLT, and NRSV for example, I noticed that Grudem again misrepresents the facts when he says on page 66 of his book: "These verses and others like them with the English word repent give further evidence that no committee of English Bible translators has agreed with Bing definition, 'change of mind.'" Here Grudem is either not being honest with the facts or he has simply not done his research, because the truth is that actually several committees of English Bible translators have agreed with Bing's definition of repent in the sense of "a change of mind"! I want to point out several more examples in addition to the ones that I mentioned above. Notice how some of the other "widely known English Bible translations" besides the NASB render the same verses:
"Furthermore, the Eternal One of Israel does not lie or change His mind [not: repent], for He is not man who changes his mind [not: repents]." (1 Samuel 15:29, HCSB.)
"The earth will mourn and the heavens will be draped in black because of my decree against my people. I have made up my mind [not: repented] and will not change it." (Jeremiah 4:28, NLT.)
"And at another moment I may declare concerning a nation or a kingdom that I will build and plant it, but if it does evil in My sight, not listening to My voice, then I will change My mind [not: repent] about the good that I had intended to do to it." (Jeremiah 18:9-10 NRSV.)
"And if at another time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be built up and planted, and if it does evil in my sight and does not obey me, then I will reconsider [not: repent] the good I had intended to do for it."(Jeremiah 18:9-10, NIV.)
"The LORD decided not to do this [not: repented]. 'It will not happen,' the LORD said." (Amos 7:3, NET Bible. There is a translation note in the NET Bible after the words "decided not to do this."  The translation note reads: "Or 'changed his mind about this.'")
"The LORD decided not to do this [not: repented]. The Sovereign LORD said, 'This will not happen either.'" (Amos 7:6 NET Bible. There is a translation note in the NET Bible after the words "decided not to do this." The translation note reads: "Or 'changed his mind about this.'")

Grudem in his book unfortunately never mentions any of these Bible verses which support Dr. Bing's definition of repentance as a "change of mind".
    
Interestingly, in an article titled "The Repentance of God," Lester J. Kuyper notes that in the Pentateuch, the scholars who translated the Greek Septuagint (LXX) shied away from having God repent, because to them: "Repentance or changeableness seemed to be at variance with the omniscience of God....This scruple, however, did not bother the Greek translators of the rest of the OT, for they rather consistently translate NHM [nacham] with metanoeo". Kuyper goes on to say: "The point to be made here is that the LXX apart from the Pentateuch understood this verb [NHM] to mean a change in mind or purpose which occurred when it is said that Jahweh repented."[6] 
    
Sadly, Grudem never once mentions these relevant Old Testament Bible verses which Dr. Bing alluded to in his book.[7] Instead, Grudem simply glosses over a few Bible verses of his own liking (none from the Old Testament), and then quickly concludes “that no committee of English Bible translators has agreed with Bing’s definition, ‘change of mind.’”[8] But here Grudem misrepresents both Dr. Bing and the Bible by failing to mention Dr. Bing’s statements on metanoeō in the LXX and failing to mention the relevant Bible verses in the Old Testament where the Hebrew word nacham and the Greek word metanoeō (in the LXX) are both translated in several instances as “change His mind” in the New American Standard Bible (NASB) and similarly in several of the other "widely known English Bible translations"!
    
Grudem makes several remarks in his book about how we should arrive at the proper definition and understanding of saving faith. Grudem's statements about faith are also relevant to repentance because in the Bible, faith and repentance are closely connected (see Jonah 3:5; Matt. 12:41; Acts 20:21, etc.). Grudem correctly points out on page 49 of his book that it "is simply incorrect theological reasoning" to base our understanding of saving faith on only one book in the Bible. He writes:
"The early church rightly condemned the teachings of Marcion (c. AD 85-160), whose canon of Scripture included only eleven books (no Old Testament, and in the New Testament only a shortened Gospel of Luke and ten of Paul's thirteen epistles). . . . If other verses in other books of the Bible give us further teaching about the nature of saving faith [and biblical repentance], then we should use those verses as well to help us understand faith [and repentance]. These other verses are also part of 'all Scripture,' which is given to us by God to be 'profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness' (2 Tim. 3:16). . . . We should use every relevant passage in the whole Bible to define the nature of saving faith [and repentance]."[9] 

Grudem is correct here in urging us to take into consideration both Old Testament and New Testament: "the whole counsel of God" (Acts 20:27), to help us understand saving faith. Should we not also appeal to both the Old Testament and New Testament when seeking to understand biblical repentance? Grudem would do well to apply his reasoning equally to both faith and repentance! But unfortunately in the chapter of his book where he deals with the subject of repentance (Chapter 2: "No Call to Repent of Sins"), Grudem only quotes three Bibles verses from the Old Testament, all from the book of Isaiah (Isa. 6:5 [Grudem quotes Isaiah 6:5 but incorrectly gives the verse reference as "Isa. 6:15."], 55:6-7), and provides no exegesis to show if these verses even support his understanding of repentance. In fact, thinking of Grudem's bold claim that supposedly "ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS SAY 'REPENT!' AND NOT 'CHANGE YOUR MIND!'"[10], the three Bible verses that Grudem quotes from the Old Testament don't even meet his qualification that "ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS SAY 'REPENT!'" So how did Grudem pick these three Bible verses if they don't even use the word "repent"?
    
The fact that the Hebrew word nacham and the Greek word metanoeō (in the LXX) are both translated in the NASB and in other "widely known English Bible translations" in several places as "change His mind" (in reference to God) and not "repent" as in most English Bible translations, poses a real problem for Grudem because his entire premise is that repentance in the Bible does not simply mean "a change of mind," but in his view it must also include things like "a heartfelt sorrow for sin, a renouncing of it, and a sincere commitment to forsake it and walk in obedience to Christ." Thus it's no surprise (but it is sad) that Grudem in his book omits any and all discussion of this relevant biblical material from the Old Testament cited by Dr. Bing that I have discussed in this article. Just more evidence that Grudem misrepresents both Dr. Bing and the Bible.


ENDNOTES:

[1] Wayne Grudem, "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel (Wheaton: Crossway, 2016), p. 56.

[2] Ibid., p. 64. It’s a bold claim to say that “ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS [OF THE BIBLE] SAY ‘REPENT!’ AND NOT ‘CHANGE YOUR MIND!’” Let's examine the first half of Grudem's premise. Is it true that all English translations of the Bible say "repent" for metanoeō, or is Grudem once again misrepresenting the facts? Let's take a closer look. Grudem in his book goes on to explain: “This verb [metanoeō] is translated as ‘repent’ in the following Bible versions: KJV, NKJV, ESV, NASB, NIV, NET, HCSB, NLT, RSV, and NRSV.” (Ibid., p. 64.) Okay, but that’s not “ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS” as Grudem initially claimed. The truth is (and this is most obvious), not all English translations of the Bible say “repent” when translating the Greek word metanoeō. Personally, I like how J. B. Phillips translates Matthew 3:2 (and similar verses with the word metanoeō). The Phillips translation says, “You must change your hearts—for the Kingdom of Heaven has arrived!” This translation of Matthew 3:2 supports Dr. Bing’s understanding of repentance, and disproves Grudem's sweeping claim that "ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS SAY 'REPENT!'" In regards to the fact that the Phillips translation of Matthew 3:2 (and similar verses) supports Dr. Bing's understanding of repentance, even Grudem affirms this in a footnote in his book (p. 56, footnote 13) when he writes: “Bing says that ‘it is also accurate to translate the word repentance as a change of heart.’ Charles Bing, Grace, Salvation, and Discipleship: How to Understand Some Difficult Bible Passages (The Woodlands, TX: Grace Theology Press, 2015), 51.” So we see that contrary to what Grudem has claimed, not “ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS SAY ‘REPENT!’”

[3] Ibid., p. 64.

[4] Charles C. Bing, Lordship Salvation: A Biblical Evaluation and Response, 2nd GraceLife Edition (Xulon Press, 2010), p. 69, footnote 40.

[5] Wayne Grudem, "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel, p. 64. Grudem has good things to say about the New American Standard Bible (NASB), although he personally prefers the English Standard Version (ESV). In an article titled "The Advantages of the English Standard Version (ESV) Translation," Grudem categorizes the NASB as an "essentially literal" translation and gives this summary: "In 1971, the New American Standard Bible (NASB) was published by the Lockman Foundation. It was precise and accurate in its word-for-word literalness, and for that reason it became especially popular among pastors who did verse-by-verse and word-for-word expository preaching." Grudem goes on to say that "the NASB, [is] widely respected for its accuracy" (pp. 8-9).

[6] Lester J. Kuyper, “The Repentance of God”, Reformed Review (Vol. 18, No. 4, May 1965), see pp. 6-7, bold added. Dr. Scofield understands the Hebrew word nacham similarly; his note on the word “Repentance” in the Old Testament in The Scofield Reference Bible is instructive. Commenting on the word “repented” in Zechariah 8:14, Dr. Scofield  writes the following: “Repentance (O.T.), Summary: In the O.T., repentance is the English word used to translate the Heb. nacham, to be ‘eased’ or ‘comforted.’ It is used of both God and man. Notwithstanding the literal meaning of nacham, it is evident, from a study of all the passages, that the sacred writers use it in the sense of metanoia in the N.T.—a change of mind. See Mt. 3.2; Acts 17.30, note. As in the N.T., such change of mind is often accompanied by contrition and self-judgment. When applied to God the word is used phenomenally according to O.T. custom. God seems to change His mind. The phenomena are such, as, in the case of a man, would indicate a change of mind.” (C. I. Scofield, The Scofield Reference Bible, 1917 Edition, p. 972, footnote 2.)

[7] See Charles Bing, Lordship Salvation, p. 69, footnote 40.

[8] Wayne Grudem, "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel, p. 66.

[9] Ibid., pp. 49-50, 54-55. Note: Grudem affirms that repentance is implied together with faith. He writes that “we should regard repentance and faith as two closely connected parts of one overall action, parts that cannot be separated.” (Ibid., p. 45.)

[10] Ibid., p. 64.