Saturday, January 13, 2024

Is Scofield's View of Revelation 2-3 "Thoroughly Implausible"?

Some years ago Daniel B. Wallace wrote a blog post for the Parchment and Pen blog titled "Inviting Jesus into your Heart," to which someone named John left the following comment: "The Book of Revelation Chapters 2 & 3 deal with the church ages, from the time of Paul, the angel (messenger) to Ephesus (dealing with the Gentile Christian Eras) to our Age (Laodicea)."[1] This explanation and outline of Revelation chapters 2-3 is essentially the view set forth by Dr. C. I. Scofield in The Scofield Reference Bible. But notice how Wallace responds; he quickly brushes John's view aside (as if it had no credibility) by saying: "John, the church age view [i.e. the classic dispensational view] of Revelation 2-3 is certainly a minority view among [modern-day] exegetes. I am aware of only one professor who actually holds to it. One of the biggest problems with it is simply that no matter how people have tried to construct church history, the seven ages never seem to fit. [Editor's note: They actually fit perfectly for those who "rightly divide the word of truth" (2 Tim. 2:15, KJV)!] They have to procrusteanize ["to stretch or contract according to some rule or standard"] these chapters into church history! Another major problem is that this view would be meaningless to anyone in the first century – in fact, meaningless to anyone until the 'Laodicean' age. I would have to reject it as thoroughly implausible."[2]

I responded to Wallace's comment with one of my own (an edited copy of my comment appears below), in which I highligted some problems that I saw with his view: 

Just a thought on Dr. Wallace's previous comment (from 09-27-10), Dr. Scofield in his Reference Bible (and elsewhere) teaches that Revelation chapters 2-3 does indeed outline church history. Of course, all the editors of the Scofield Reference Bible would agree, no doubt. So right there, we have more than a handful of respected and reputable Bible school professors who hold to that view (the view that Wallace is critiquing). Wallace may have been referring to the present-day, but if that is true then it might actually highlight a doctrinal shift over the past century away from the truth of God's Word: thus in effect providing a real-life example of the Laodicean church that is spoken about in Revelation chapter 3, and therefore supporting Scofield's church history view of Revelation 2-3! But more than this, it is not accurate to say that a "major problem is that this view [i.e. Scofield's view of Revelation chapters 2-3] would be meaningless to anyone in the first century – in fact, meaningless to anyone until the 'Laodicean' age." (So says Wallace.) But how would it be meaningless? Does Wallace think that unfulfilled prophecy (which is exactly what most of Revelation chapters 2-3 would be to anyone in the first century) is meaningless until it is fulfilled? That would be like saying that all the (yet unfulfilled) prophetic portions of Revelation are meaningless to us! Which of course is absurd! Who would ever say such a thing? Yet this is Wallace's reasoning in regards to Revelation chapters 2-3, when it comes to Scofield's view of it. But it should be obvious that just because a prophecy is unfulfilled, doesn't mean it's meaningless. That would be like saying the Second Coming of Christ is meaningless, because it hasn't happened yet. But of course as Bible-believing Christians, we don't say that. Yet this is Wallace's reasoning in regards to "the church age view of Revelation 2-3" to those living in the first century. It is actually Wallace's view of Revelation chapters 2-3 that I find "thoroughly implausible"! Furthermore, this leads to the obvious question: is something in the Bible untrue simply because people don't understand it? By no means! For example, Jesus said to His disciples: "To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been given" (Matt. 13:11; cf. Lk. 8:10). Obviously God's Word is true regardless of whether people understand it or not. Another example is when it says in the Bible (referring to the disciples), that "as yet they did not understand the Scripture, that he must rise from the dead" (Jn. 20:9). Was the resurrection of Christ untrue because it was a prophecy that people did not yet understand? Of course not. Wallace's reasoning related to the church history view of Revelation 2-3 doesn't make any sense, nor does it hold up when comparing Scripture with Scripture.

Wallace's view is the typical Calvinistic/Reformed perspective, but the church history view of Revelation chapters 2-3 (i.e. the dispensational view) is wonderfully set forth by Dr. J. Vernon McGee in his commentary on the passage. McGee writes the following succinct summary in his Thru The Bible commentary: 

   “These seven letters [in Revelation chapters 2-3] have a threefold interpretation and application: 

   1. Contemporary—they had a direct message to the local churches of John’s day. I intend to take you to the location of these seven churches in these next two chapters. I have visited the sites of these churches several times, and I want to visit them again and again, because it is such a thrill and because it brings me closer to the Bible. You can get closer to the bible by visiting these seven churches than you can by walking through the land of Israel. The ruins have an obvious message. John was writing to churches that he knew all about. In The Letters to the Seven Churches of Asia Sir William Ramsay said, ‘The man who wrote these seven letters to the seven churches had been there, and he knew the local conditions.’ 

   2. Composite—each one is a composite picture of the church. There is something that is applicable to all churches in all ages in each message to each individual church. In other words, when you read the message to the church in Pergamum, there is a message for your church and a message for you personally. 

   3. Chronological—the panoramic history of the church is given in these seven letters, from Pentecost to the Parousia, from the Upper Room to the upper air. There are seven distinct periods of church history. Ephesus represents the apostolic church; Laodicea represents the apostate church. This prophetic picture is largely fulfilled and is now church history, which makes these chapters extremely remarkable.”[3]

 

References:

[1] John, comment dated "2010-09-27," under the post "Inviting Jesus into your Heart," Parchment and Pen blog.

[2] Daniel B. Wallace, comment dated "2010-09-27," under the post "Inviting Jesus into your Heart," Parchment and Pen blog.

[3] J. Vernon McGee, Thru The Bible, Vol. 5: 1 Corinthians—Revelation, p. 898. See under the heading: "INTRODUCTION TO CHAPTERS 2 AND 3".

2 comments:

Jonathan Perreault said...

For those who may not be all that familiar with the different theological interpretations of Revelation 2-3 that I'm referring to in this blog post, I asked ChatGPT a few questions in order to bring more clarity to the issues involved. The details provided by ChatGPT are helpful, and so I will reproduce them below.

Here are the questions that I posed to ChatGPT:

"C. I. Scofield's view of Revelation chapters 2 through 3, sometimes called the Church History view, what is that in distinction to? Is that in contrast to Reformed theology, or is it in contrast to neo-, that is, progressive dispensationalism? What exactly is the contrasting view that would oppose the Church History view of Revelation 2 through 3?"

ChatGPT's answer:

"C.I. Scofield's view of Revelation chapters 2–3, often referred to as the Church History view, is a perspective within dispensational theology that interprets the seven churches addressed in those chapters as symbolizing different periods of church history. Each of the seven churches is seen as representing a distinct historical era, starting from the apostolic age and extending to the modern period, culminating in the end times.

This view is typically contrasted with two primary perspectives:

1. The Traditional Reformed View: In contrast to Scofield's dispensationalist interpretation, Reformed theology typically interprets Revelation 2–3 as addressing seven literal, historical churches in Asia Minor at the time John wrote the book. These letters are considered to provide moral and spiritual lessons relevant to all churches throughout history rather than mapping out distinct periods of church history. Reformed theology generally does not adopt the eschatological framework that divides history into separate dispensations.

2. Progressive Dispensationalism: Progressive dispensationalism represents a more recent development within dispensational thought. Unlike Scofield's classical dispensationalism, progressive dispensationalists tend to see more continuity between God's dealings with Israel and the Church. In terms of Revelation 2–3, progressive dispensationalists are more likely to interpret the churches as addressing specific, historical congregations and offering timeless principles for Christian life and church structure, rather than seeing them as representative of distinct historical epochs.

In short, Scofield's Church History view contrasts with both Reformed theology (which does not adopt a dispensational framework) and progressive dispensationalism (which rejects rigid historical epochs and emphasizes more continuity within the dispensational system)."

Jonathan Perreault said...

It's important to keep in mind that Daniel B. Wallace is in the Reformed/Lordship Salvation camp. In other words, he's a Calvinist. For example, he wrote one of the glowing endorsements featured in Wayne Grudem's book, "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel (Crossway Publishers, 2016). The aformentioned endorsements were just a gaggle of back-slapping Calvinists, no surprise there. But my point is that whether or not Dr. Wallace is a progressive dispensationalist (he may be, I'm not entirely sure), he is definitely a Calvinist and he's in the Reformed camp (the Reformed theology camp). So either way, Wallace disagrees with Scofield's Church History view of Revelation 2-3.

My point in the blog post was to frame the disagreement as dispensational theology vs. Reformed (Covenant) theology, but the disagreement with Scofield could also be categorized as classic dispensationalism vs. progressive dispensationalism. I'm just not entirely sure if Wallace adheres to progressive dispensationalism or not, that's why in the blog post I just focused on how Scofield's view is distinct from Reformed/Covenant theology. But either way, Wallace's view of Revelation 2-3 is in contrast to Scofield's view of it.