John 21:15-17: Unpacking the Nuance of "Love" in Peter's Restoration

I recently came across an interesting discussion related to the different New Testament words for "love" on Bill Mounce's blog Monday with Mounce. In response to a blog post he wrote titled "Everybody needs a little love" (Monday, June 22, 2009), someone named Randy asked the following question in the comments: "I get the idea that you are saying that in John 21:15-17 agapaō and phileō are synonyms. If that is true way [why] was Peter grived [grieved] when Christ asked the third time, 'Peter, do you phileō me?' Thanks." 

Then someone named Jason Dempsey wrote the following reply, saying: "Verse 17 is testament to the fact that agapaō and phileō were being used synonymously by John. In verse 17, John writes, 'Peter was grieved because he said to him the third time, 'Do you love (phileō) me?' In the written form, agapaō was used in the first two questions and phileō was only used for the last question. Why else would John write that Peter was grieved because Christ asked a third time if Peter loves (phileō) him unless John were using the two words [agapaō and phileō] to convey the same meaning?" 

But actually, it's not accurate to say that "Christ asked a third time if Peter loves (phileō) him". The Greek text is clear that in the first two questions (vv. 15-16), Christ used the word agapais, not phileō. Only in the third question (v. 17) does Christ use the phileō word for "love": Christ says to Peter, "phileis me?" That is, "Do you have brotherly affection toward Me?" This relates to the issue (stated by Mr. Dempsey) of whether or not it is accurate to say that the words agapaō and phileō are used synonymously in John 21:15-17, particularly in light of verse 17. Let's take a closer look! Here's what I found in my research, and what I wrote in response to Mr. Dempsey:

With regard to the question, "Why else would John write that Peter was grieved because Christ asked a third time if Peter loves (phileō) him unless John were using the two words [agapaō and phileō] to convey the same meaning?" — the answer is simple. In fact, you've already quoted the verse that contains the answer! It's surprising this wasn't noticed (or perhaps you interpret it differently).

The answer is found in the text you quoted from John 21:17, when John says, "Peter was grieved because He said to him the third time, 'Do you love (phileō) Me?'" Notice that the text says, "the third time" (to triton) as opposed to "a third time". The use of the Greek definite article ("the" in English) is key; John says "the third time," not "a third time". John is simply drawing attention to the third question, not indicating that the same question was repeated three times. John uses the definite article ("the third time," to triton) to highlight the specific third question as a turning point; not suggesting that the same question was asked three times. Most English Bible translations reflect this nuance by rendering it as "the third time" (see John 21:17 in the KJV, NKJV, RSV, ASV, ESV, NASB, NIV, CSB, HCSB, Young's Literal Translation, the Geneva Bible, etc.). Commenting on John 21:17, the New Testament Greek scholar A. T. Robertson affirms, "These two words [agapaō and phileō] are often interchanged in the N.T., but here the distinction is preserved." (Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, Vol. V, p. 321.)

Furthermore, the text of John 21:17 says: "He said to him the third time," not "He said to him again the third time" (as in the Lamsa Bible). It's important to understand that the Lamsa Bible is based on the Peshitta, a Syriac (Aramaic) version of the Bible — not the Koine Greek. The word "again" does not appear in the Koine Greek text of John 21:17. Interestingly, the word "again" doesn't appear in the Aramaic text either. (This can be confirmed by comparing other Aramaic New Testament translations that omit "again" in John 21:17.) George Lamsa inserted the word "again" as an interpretive flourish based on his understanding of the Aramaic idiom. It reflects his stylistic approach, not the actual wording of the Aramaic text. The fact that the word "again" is not in the Greek text of John 21:17 nor in the Aramaic supports the conclusion that the three questions posed by Christ in John 21:15-17 are not simply identical repetitions of the same question. While they share thematic overlap, they are not inherently synonymous.

I would be remiss if I did not close by drawing attention to a beautiful statement by William Kelly concerning Peter's restoration in John 21:17: "Peter abandons every thought of self and can find refuge only in grace." (Wm. Kelly, An Exposition of the Gospel of John [London: 1898], p. 446.)