Where is God’s Grace in the Old Testament?

“The Bible is a history of grace. From the story of creation, with which it begins, to the picture of last things, with which it closes, it is grace, grace, grace.” —R. A. Torrey

 * * *

The clearest manifestation of God’s grace is of course the Lord Jesus Christ, the incarnated Son of God, born in Bethlehem to die on Calvary. In the Gospel of John it says, “The Law was given through Moses, but grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ” (Jn. 1:17). 

Nevertheless, there are pictures of God’s grace sprinkled throughout the Old Testament, scattered across its pages like gems, waiting to be found by those who have “eyes to see and ears to hear.” Following are ten of these precious gems, God’s grace in the Old Testament:

Grace Gem #1: After the Fall of man into sin, God clothed Adam and Even with the skins of a slain animal (perhaps a lamb), the death of a substitute in place of their own (see Genesis 3:21). Commenting on verse 21, Dr. C. I. Scofield writes: “Coats of skin: Type of ‘Christ, made unto us righteousness’—a divinely provided garment that the first sinners might be made fit for God’s presence.”[1] In the New Testament, John the Baptist said of Jesus, “Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!” (Jn. 1:29). The writer of the book of Hebrews says: “He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself” (Heb. 9:26, NASB).

Grace Gem #2: God banished the fallen couple out of the Garden of Eden and most importantly, away from the tree of life. For if they had eaten from the tree of life as sinners, they would have been confined to their sinful state forever and ever! (See Genesis 3:22.) Andreas Köstenberger affirms that God “casts them out in order to prevent them from eating from the tree of life and living forever (Gen. 3:22-24). This constitutes an act of God’s grace in limiting human sin. It would be a disaster for a human to live forever in a fallen state.”[2] 

Grace Gem #3: “Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD” (Gen. 6:8, KJV). R. A. Torrey has well said: “Noah was saved by grace. No man was ever saved in any other way (Eph. 2. 8). Noah was a sinner and deserved to perish, but Noah was saved with all his house by the unmerited favor of God (cf. Acts 16. 31). It is true that Jehovah speaks of Noah as righteous (ch. 7. 1), but Noah’s righteousness, like that of Abraham, was the righteousness that comes by faith (cf. ch. 15. 6). God told Noah that there was to be a flood and Noah believed what God said, and prepared an ark to the saving of himself and all his house (Heb. 11. 7). He was saved ‘by grace through faith,’ and any other man can be saved in the same way to-day (John 3. 16).”[3]

Grace Gem #4: God was patient with the wicked generation of Noah’s day by withholding judgment for 120 years, as Noah preached to them. “God gave the neighbors of Noah one hundred twenty years of grace”.[4] God provided only one way of salvation, the door of the Ark, and any sinner who entered through that door would be saved! In the New Testament, Jesus said, “I am the door, anyone who enters through Me will be saved” (Jn. 10:9).

Grace Gem #5: God delivered Israel out of the land of Egypt; He commanded that the blood of a spotless lamb to be sprinkled on the doorposts of each house, and all who took shelter under the blood were saved! (See Exodus chapter 12.) The Passover lamb was a picture of the Lord Jesus Christ, for the apostle Paul says, "Christ, our Passover Lamb, has been sacrificed for us" (1 Cor. 5:7, NLT).

Grace Gem # 6: Moses lifted up the serpent on a pole in the wilderness, and whoever simply looked to the serpent was healed (see Numbers 21:6-9). This was a picture of Jesus being lifted up on the cross, that whoever simply looks to Him in faith will be saved (see John 3:14-17).

Grace Gem #7: God spared King David’s life after his willful sin with Bathsheba. David even tried to cover up his sin by murdering Bathsheba’s husband, Uriah the Hittite. It was by sheer grace that God forgave David, since in the Old Testament, there was no sacrifice for willful, deliberate sin: the penalty was death![5] Nevertheless, God graciously spared David’s life.

Grace Gem #8: God warned Nineveh for 40 days, saying through Jonah the prophet, “And yet forty days, and Nineveh shall be overturned!” (See Jonah 3:4.) Here we see God’s grace in the “yet forty days,” which gave the Ninevites time to repent. Commenting on this incident from Jonah chapter 3, Warren Wiersbe affirms concerning the Ninevites that “God gave the people forty days of grace”.[6] Amazingly, the entire city of Nineveh repented! God withheld judgment and the people were saved.

Grace Gem # 9: God commanded that there were to be cities of refuge in the land of Israel for manslayers and those guilty of shedding innocent blood, where they could flee for safety. Dr. Ironside notes that these cities of refuge are types of Christ, and expressions of God’s grace.[7]

Grace Gem #10: “Come, all you who are thirsty, come to the waters; and you who have no money, come, buy and eat! Come, buy wine and milk without money and without cost” (Isaiah 55:1, NIV). This is, as someone has said, “An Invitation to Grace”! The Bible closes with a similar appeal in the book of Revelation: “And the Spirit and the bride say, ‘Come!’ And let him who hears say, ‘Come!’ And let him who thirsts come. Whoever desires, let him take the water of life freely” (Rev. 22:17, NKJV). Similar to God’s invitation through Isaiah the prophet, this appeal in the last book of the Bible is likewise, and fittingly, also an “invitation of grace”![8]

ENDNOTES:

[1] C. I. Scofield, The Scofield Reference Bible, p. 10, note 1 on Genesis 3:21; cf. Job 29:14; 1 Corinthians 1:30.

[2] Andreas Köstenberger, The Cradle, the Cross, and the Crown, 2nd Edition (Nashville: B & H Academic, 2016), p. 1027.

[3] R. A. Torrey, Record of Christian Work (July 1901), vol. 20, p. 517.

[4] Robert M. Russell, The Christian Workers Magazine (September 1918), vol. 19, p. 665.

[5] Warren Wiersbe affirms, “The law provided a sacrifice for sins committed ignorantly, but there was no sacrifice for deliberate presumptuous sin (Ex. 21:14; Num. 15:27-31; Ps. 51:16-17).” (Wiersbe, The Wiersbe Bible Commentary: New Testament, p. 221, comment on Luke 23:34.)

[6] Warren Wiersbe, The Bible Exposition Commentary: Old Testament, p. 384.

[7] H. A. Ironside, Addresses on the Book of Joshua, pp. 124-131. Dr. Scofield similarly writes: “The cities of refuge are types of Christ sheltering the sinner from judgment (Psa. 46.1; 142.5; Isa. 4.6; Ex. 21.13; Deut. 19.2-9; Rom. 8.1, 33, 34; Phil. 3.9; Heb. 6.18, 19).” (C. I. Scofield, The Scofield Reference Bible, p. 213, note on Numbers 35:6.)

[8] Phillip Mauro, The Fundamentals (Chicago: Testimony Publishing Company, 1900), vol. 5, p. 71.

What Aramaic Word Did Jesus Use for "Repentance"?

Here’s a question that I recently received from a reader: “What Aramaic word would Jesus have used to express ‘metanoia’ (Change of mind)?”

In my research, the best answer to this question is from the eminent and learned theologian Dr. John Lightfoot (1602-1675). Commenting on the words of Jesus in Matthew 4:17 and Mark 1:15, Lightfoot writes the following:

“worth our consideration in this our Saviour’s doctrine, is the word by which he calleth for repentance. What Syriack word he used speaking that language it is uncertain (the Syriack translator useth Return or be converted) but the word which the Holy Ghost hath left us in the Original Greek metanoeite is exceeding significant and pertinent to that doctrine and occasion. The word is frequently used in the Septuagint, concerning God, when he is said to repent or not repent, as 1 Sam. 15.29. Jer. 3.9. Amos 7.3.6. &c. but the use of it applied to man is not so frequent in them, as of the word epistraphēte [be converted], & epistrepsate apo kakias [turn from evil] as Ezek. 18.30. because that word doth most Grammatically and verbatim translate the word shub, which is the word most commonly used in the Hebrew, for Repenting, and yet do the Septuagint sometimes use metanoein for man’s repentance, as Jer. 8.6. &c.”

“The word doth first signifie a reviewing or considering of a man’s own self and condition, as Lam. 3.40. and so Brucioli doth render it in the Italian, Ravedete vi [Repent ye], view your selves, or take yourselves into consideration. Secondly, it betokeneth [indicates] a growing wise, or coming to one’s self again, as Luk. 15.17. and thereupon it is well rendered by our Protestant Divines, Resipicite, Be wise again, for so the word were to be construed in its strict propriety. And thirdly it signifieth a change of mind, from one temper to another.”

“Now the Holy Ghost by a word of this significancy, doth give the proper and true character of repentance, both against the misprisions [distortions] that were taken up concerning it, by their traditions in those times, and those also that have been taken up since.”[1]

Reference: 

John Lightfoot, The Works of the Reverend and Learned John Lightfoot, George Bright, Editor (London: 1684), 2 vols., vol. 1, p. 629, spelling and italics his. Note: I transcribed the Hebrew and Greek letters from the original statement into English. I also added apostrophes in several instances where modern English requires it (e.g. “Saviour’s doctrine,” “man’s own self and condition,” etc.).

What’s the Right Latin Word for "Repentance"?

Recently a reader sent me the following question about repentance, which I would like to share as a blog post (with his permission) because there is so much misunderstanding about the meaning of biblical repentance. I have edited the reader’s question for minor punctuation and formatting changes and I have briefly expanded my response for added clarity in this article. I hope this Q & A on repentance is helpful in shedding some much needed light on this much misunderstood topic of biblical repentance! Here is the reader’s question about how to rightly understand repentance in the Bible and what is the best Latin word to translate the Greek word metanoia:

Hey Jonathan,

Was reading in Free Grace Theology: 5 Ways It Magnifies the Gospel (2nd edition), that Lactantius originally translated Metanoia into Latin as Resipiscentia, which they say means return from madness of folly. Later they changed it to Poenitentia in the Vulgate, which is the idea of penance that we see in the Reformed group when they think of repentance.

My mind immediately goes to the English phrase “WAKE UP!” or “WISE UP” when John the Baptist is preaching repentance for the Kingdom of God is at hand. [See Matthew 3:2.]

Would that be a fair approximation in your opinion? Would it work with all renderings of “repent” or “metanoia” in the New Testament?

Thanks!

I wrote back to the reader with the following response, which I trust will help others who may have the same or a similar question about the meaning of repentance.

Hi ______,

Good question. My first thought is that the phrases “wake up” or “wise up” don’t necessarily imply a change of mind, which is my understanding of the meaning of the Greek word metanoia. For example, someone could become wiser without changing their mind, they just become wiser [cf. Prov. 4:5, 7; Lu. 2:52].  Similarly, someone could wake up and not change their mind, but have the same mind as they did before they went to sleep. So although there are some similarities between, for example, “wise up” and “change your mind,” I wouldn’t say they are quite the same. I would say that “wise up” could be a part of what it means to change the mind, but by itself, “wise up” I don’t think fully conveys the meaning of metanoia, which is actually a change of mind, not merely gaining wisdom.

In regards to the Latin word resipiscentia, you could say that it means a return from madness of folly. That’s one way to explain it and I think that’s true. Just to expand on that, the definition that I’ve seen in my research (and my understanding of the meaning of resipiscentia) is that it basically means a “return to one’s senses” or in other words, a change of mind (e.g. from madness of folly to sanity). The prodigal son in Luke 15 is a good example of the meaning of resipiscentia and metanoia. In Luke 15:17, Jesus says that the prodigal son “came to his senses,” i.e. he returned to his right mind.

If you take a look at my article titled “The Meaning of Repentance: Quotes from the Ancients, Lexicons, and Theologians” and do a search of that article using the Google search feature (hit the control and F keys), a search box will pop up and you can search that article for the word resipiscentia. Also search that article for the cognate forms: resipisco, resipicite, resipiscit, and resipiscere. I have a translation of what Martin Luther says about it, for example:

“From Luther. ‘Metanoia, which the old interpreter [i.e. Jerome, the translator of the Latin Vulgate] expresses as poenitentiam [repentance], it is called resipiscentia [‘a coming to one’s senses’] or transmentatio [‘a change of mind’]: just as also Erasmus notes concerning chapter 3 of the gospel according to Matthew. Metanoeite, it is transmentamini [in Latin], that is, assume a different mind and perception, recover your senses, make a transition of mind and a Passover of spirit, so as to now be wise in heavenly things, instead of thus far you have been wise in earthly things [cf. Jn. 3:12-17]. Also Lactantius [in] book 6 of his Institutes informs [us], that poenitentia [repentance] in Greek is called Metanoia, that is resipiscentia. By no means therefore from use in sacred Scripture is repentance called sorrow, but a change of mind and [of one’s own] judgment, and to repent is to be wise after an error, and to install a mind for right living.’”[1]

I hope this helps!

ENDNOTE:

[1] For more information see my blog post titled “The Meaning of Repentance: Quotes from the Ancients, Lexicons, and Theologians” (FGFS, May 28, 2021).

Theodore Beza on the Meaning of "Repent" in Matthew 3:2

Calvinists seem to think that the Free Grace "change of mind" definition of repentance does not go back to the Reformers. For example, Wayne Grudem in his book misrepresenting Free Grace theology writes the following: "Many [Free Grace supporters] understand repentance to mean simply a 'change of mind'....It is a definition unique to Free Grace supporters, without scholarly support from the academic community or any standard Greek reference works."[1] But I have to wonder how much research Grudem did for his book, because even a cursory review of the academic literature reveals that in fact many in "the academic community" define repentance precisely that way: as a "change of mind"![2] Here's a prominent example. It was none other than Theodore Beza who said that the word "Repent" in the Greek "signifieth a changing of our mindes and hearts from evil to better."[3] Yes, Theodore Beza wrote that![4] Who is Theodore Beza? He just happens to be one of the most notable Calvinists of the Protestant Reformation! But apparently not someone "from the academic community," at least according to Grudem.[5] But if Theodore Beza is not "scholarly" and is not "from the academic community," what does that say about Calvinism?! Grudem seems to be quite ill-informed and confused! 

Let me help to clear up the confusion by presenting some real facts. Theodore Beza lived from 1519-1605. He was a contemporary and associate of John Calvin. The Encyclopedia Britannica website says that Theodore Beza "assisted and later succeeded John Calvin as a leader of the Protestant Reformation centred at Geneva."[6] Along with Calvin, Beza was one of the main reformers of the Protestant Reformation in Geneva. In fact, there's a statue of Beza on the Reformation Wall in Geneva, Switzerland. Beza's statue stands alongside the statues of John Calvin and John Knox. Beza was also a scholar in his own right; he published several editions of the Greek New Testament. Beza lived most of his life in Geneva, Switzerland. 

How did Theodore Beza define the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2, the first mention of that word in the New Testament? Notice what Beza says in his notes on Matthew 3:2 in the Geneva Bible:

"And sayde, ^c Repent ye: for the ^d kingdom of heaven is at hand. [Matt. 3:2] ....

c The word in the Greek tongue, signifieth a changing of our mindes and hearts from evil to better. 

d The kingdom of Messias, whose government shall be heavenly, and nothing but heavenly."[7]

So here we have Theodore Beza, one of the leading Calvinists of the Protestant Reformation, giving a Free Grace definition for the word "Repent"! Thank you Theodore Beza, for going back to the Greek to define the word "Repent".

“Well it hath pleased God in this our latter age, to remove this cloak [of darkness], the Scriptures are made plain unto us, and this new Testament, by these notes of Beza, so plain both for the meaning itself of every sentence, and for the plain light of every word, and kind of speech, that no man can pretend that former excuse [of not understanding the hard sayings]. I dare avouche it, and who so readeth it, shall so find it, that there is not one hard sentence, nor dark speech, nor doubtful word, but is so opened, and hath such light given it, that children may go through with it, & the simplest that are may walk without any guide, without wandering and going astray.” –Laurence Tomson, from the Preface to the Geneva Bible New Testament.[8]

ENDNOTES:

[1] Wayne Grudem, "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel (Wheaton: Crossway Publishers: 2016), p. 70, ellipsis added.

[2] See my blog post titled: "The Meaning of Repentance: Quotes from the Ancients, Lexicons, and Theologians."

[3] Theodore Beza, Geneva Bible, NT, translated and revised by Laurence Tomson (London: Christopher Barker, 1586), no page number. See note "c" on the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2 in the Geneva Bible. Note: Both Free Grace theologians and Calvinists agree that, as the Reformed theologian John Piper has said quite succinctly: "In repentance the functions of mind and heart are not completely distinct". (Piper, What Is Saving Faith?, p. 245.) In regards to "the biblical use of the term 'heart'," John Macarthur similarly affirms: "The Old Testament says, 'As a man thinks in his heart, so is he.' [Prov. 23:7.] I believe the heart is really the equivalent of the mind." (MacArthur, "Bible Questions and Answers, Part 33B", Oct. 5, 1985.) In other words, when Beza says that the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2 means "a changing of our minds and hearts," it is essentially the same as saying that "Repent" means "a change of mind". For more information on the connection between the mind and heart, see my blog post titled: "What is the Difference Between 'Heart' and 'Mind' in Scripture?"

[4] For more information see the article: "Influence of Theodore Beza on the English New Testament" (a doctoral thesis for Oxford University) by Irena Dorota Backus. In particular, see the section (pp. 27-39) titled: "Laurence Tomson's translation of Beza's Latin New Testament (1576)". It is helpful to understand that Tomson's 1576 English translation of Beza's Latin annotations is based "very largely" on L'Oiseleur's 1574 French edition of Beza's Latin New Testament. Tomson "certainly" also referenced the 1565 edition of Beza's Greek N.T. (Ibid., pp. 32, 39.) It was to L'Oiseleur that Beza entrusted the task of translating his Latin annotations into French. Backus explains that "his [L'Oiseleur's] principal concern, he says, was to produce a work which could pass for Beza's own." (Ibid., p. 28.) Backus further explains that some of the notes in L'Oiseleur's 1574 edition are paraphrases or abbreviations of Beza's annotations, and some of the other notes are from Camerarius "where there is no doctrinal difference between his note and Beza's." (Ibid., pp. 27-29.) On the whole then, it seems safe to say that the marginal note for the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2 in the Geneva-Tomson New Testament is essentially Beza's: if not exactly, at least essentially. This conclusion is supported by the fact that it is consistent with how Beza translates Matthew 3:2 in his Latin New Testament, where he is well-known for using the Latin word Resipiscite (meaning "to recover one's senses," i.e. to change one's mind) rather than poenitentia ("repentance") to translate the Greek word Metanoeite. In other words, it is entirely consistent for Beza to say in his annotations on Matthew 3:2 concerning the word "Repent": "The word in the Greek tongue, signifieth a changing of our mindes and hearts from evil to better." 

[5] I say this tongue-in-cheek to make the point, because of course Grudem would say that Theodore Beza is someone "from the academic community"!

[6] "Theodore Beza," Britannica, www.britannica.com/biography/Theodore-Beza (accessed August 2, 2022).

[7] Theordore Beza, Geneva Bible, NT, translated and revised by Laurence Tomson (London: Christopher Barker, 1586), no page number. See note "c" on the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2 in the Geneva Bible. Note: In regards to when Beza says that the word "Repent" in Greek signifies "a changing of our minds and hearts," it should be pointed out that Charles Bing (the Free Grace author whom Grudem referenced) has made it clear that in his view "it is also accurate to translate the word repentance as a change of heart." (Cited by Grudem in his book "Free Grace" Theology: 5 Ways It Diminishes the Gospel, p. 56, footnote 13, italics his. Also see the article by Dr. Bing titled: "Repentance: What's in a Word.") So the traditional Free Grace definition of repentance as "a change of mind and heart" (op. cit.) goes back at least to the Protestant Reformation since it was also Beza's definition of the word "Repent" in Matthew 3:2! Thus, contrary to what Grudem would have us believe, the traditional Free Grace definition of repentance does indeed have "scholarly support from the academic community"! For more examples of "scholarly support from the academic community" see my article titled: "Free Grace Theology: 6 Ways Grudem Misrepresents Biblical Repentance."

[8] For more information see my blog posted titled: "The Geneva Bible definition of 'Repent' in Matthew 3:2."